Integral of f·g ≠ integral f · integral g [True or False]

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the mathematical statement regarding the integral of the product of two functions, f and g, and whether it is equivalent to the product of their individual integrals. Participants are exploring the truth value of the statement "integral of f·g ≠ integral f · integral g" and the implications of its interpretation.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are debating the conditions under which the statement may hold true or false, with some suggesting that it could be true in specific cases, such as when one of the functions is zero. Others are questioning the semantics of the statement and its implications in logical mathematics.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with various interpretations being explored. Some participants have offered insights into the semantics of the statement, while others have raised counter-examples to challenge the assertions made. There is no explicit consensus yet, but the dialogue is productive in examining the nuances of the statement.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the statement lacks explicit quantification, leading to differing interpretations about its validity. This has prompted discussions about the clarity of mathematical notation and the implications of universal quantification in the context of the problem.

MiddleEast
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Homework Statement
True or False : Integral of f·g ≠ integral f · integral g
Relevant Equations
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My answer is False! I think must stated "in general," in the beginning of the statement. Cause this could be true if f or g = zero. There may be other cases also.
Is my answer right?
 
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If integral of f·g ≠ integral f · integral g is false, then integral of f·g = integral f · integral g.

Thus this make sense?
 
Hmmm. Good point! The issue here is that my point is "sometime true sometimes false" & your point "If it not true, then it is always false". huge difference between my point of view and yours! I believe it has something to do with "logical mathematics" if there is something called so.

The issue if you said it is true then I have my counter-example.
 
You obviously understand the point, and the answer at this stage is semantics over the implicit qualifier. I think it's a confusing question.
 
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There's no clear notation in mathematics for "not necessarily equal to". The best we can do is say something like, for example:

For functions ##f## and ##g## in general ##f \circ g \ne g \circ f##. Even though there are cases where equality holds.
 
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in my opinion, if the answer can only be true or false, that implies to me that the statement is universally quantified, so i would argue the correct answer should be false. since the statement is not explicitly quantified however, one could argue that it is poorly posed.
 
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