The integral can be solved by contour integration but I made a mistake somewhere , anyways the following approach is somehow a transformation to the contour to famous one .
$$\int^{\infty}_0 \frac{\sin(ax)}{e^{2\pi x}-1} \, dx $$
Let $$t = 2 \pi x$$
$$
\begin{align*}
\frac{1}{2\pi }\int^{\infty}_0 \frac{\sin \left(\frac{at}{2\pi } \right) }{e^{t}-1} \, dt &=\frac{1}{2\pi }\sum^{\infty}_{n =0}\frac{(-1)^n}{\Gamma(2n+2)}\int^{\infty}_0 \frac{ \left(\frac{at}{2\pi } \right)^{2n+1} }{e^{t}-1} \, dt \\
\\
&=\frac{1}{2\pi }\sum^{\infty}_{n =0}\frac{(-1)^n \left(\frac{a}{2\pi } \right)^{2n+1}}{\Gamma(2n+2)}\int^{\infty}_0 \frac{t^{2n+1} }{e^{t}-1} \, dt \\
&=\frac{1}{2\pi }\sum^{\infty}_{n =0}\frac{(-1)^n \left(\frac{a}{2\pi } \right)^{2n+1} \Gamma (2n+2)\zeta(2n+2)}{\Gamma(2n+2)} \\
&=\frac{1}{2\pi }\sum^{\infty}_{n =0}(-1)^n \left(\frac{a}{2\pi } \right)^{2n+1}\zeta(2n+2)\\
&=\frac{1}{2\pi }\sum^{\infty}_{n =0}(-1)^n \left(\frac{a}{2\pi } \right)^{2n+1}\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k^{2n+2}}\\
&=\frac{1}{2\pi }\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{k^2}\sum^{\infty}_{n =0}(-1)^n \frac{\left(\frac{a}{2\pi } \right)^{2n+1} }{k^{2n}}\\
&=\frac{a}{4\pi^2 } \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k^2} \sum^{\infty}_{n =0}\left( -\frac{a^2}{4\pi^2 k^2 } \right)^n \\
&=\frac{a}{4\pi^2 }\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{k^2(1+\frac{a^2}{4\pi^2 k^2})} \\
&= \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{a}{k^2+a^2}\\
\end{align*}$$
$$\int^{\infty}_0 \frac{\sin(ax)}{e^{2\pi x}-1} \, dx = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{a}{k^2+a^2} $$If anyone wants to try this sum , otherwise I will solve it in the next thread .