Integral Operation: Why Does nηIJ Vanish?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the integral operation involving the expression -nηIJ 1/2π ∫02π dσ ei(m+n)σ and why it vanishes under certain conditions. The context includes calculations related to commutators of alpha modes, suggesting a theoretical exploration beyond standard model physics.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Technical explanation, Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions why the integral vanishes, presenting the integral in the context of commutators.
  • Another participant assumes m and n are integers and provides a mathematical breakdown of the integral, showing that if m+n ≠ 0, the integral evaluates to zero, while if m+n = 0, it evaluates to 2π.
  • A later reply acknowledges the importance of this idea in Fourier transforms and related applications, emphasizing the orthogonality of sines and cosines.
  • Another participant expresses realization about the connection to Fourier transforms, indicating a missed understanding initially.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the mathematical evaluation of the integral under different conditions, but the broader implications and context of the integral's vanishing remain less clear and are not fully resolved.

Contextual Notes

The discussion does not clarify the assumptions regarding the parameters m and n beyond their integer nature, nor does it address any potential dependencies on definitions or specific contexts within the calculations.

moriheru
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My question concerns a integral and why it vanishes:
-nηIJ 1/2π ∫0 dσ ei(m+n)σ=-nηIJ deltam+n=0Just to justify why this should be on the beyond the standard model forum, this is part of a calulation concerning the comutators of the alpha modes.
 
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I assume m and n are integers?
If ##m+n \neq 0## then, ##m+n = a \in \mathbb{Z}## and
## \int_0^{2\pi} e^{i (m+n) \sigma} d\sigma = \frac{1}{i(m+n)} e^{i (m+n) \sigma} |_0^{2\pi} = \frac{1}{i(m+n)} - \frac{1}{i(m+n)} = 0.##
If ##m+n=0## then ## \int_0^{2\pi} e^{i (m+n) \sigma} d\sigma = \int_0^{2\pi} 1 d\sigma= 2\pi.##
 
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Thankyou.
 
No problem--this idea is fundamental to Fourier transforms and a host of other applications requiring orthogonality of sines and cosines.
 
Oh... that's an FT I missed that :) would've made that easyer,thanks.
 

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