Integrating cot(x) by partswhat's wrong?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the integration of the function cot(x) using integration by parts. Participants are examining the validity of the original poster's approach and the implications of their findings.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to integrate cot(x) by parts and presents a series of steps leading to a seemingly contradictory result. Some participants question the correctness of the signs in the calculations, while others suggest that the integration technique may not be appropriate for this integral.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the original poster's method, pointing out potential errors and discussing the implications of the results. There is a recognition of the challenges posed by indefinite integrals and the nature of integration by parts in this context.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note the possibility of re-evaluating the integral as a definite integral, raising further questions about the outcomes and interpretations of such an approach.

abel_ghita
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Homework Statement



I=∫cot(x)dx

Homework Equations



wht's wrong in this approach (integrating by parts)

The Attempt at a Solution



I=∫cot(x)dx=∫\frac{cos(x)}{sin(x)}dx=∫\frac{-(sin(x))'}{sin(x)}=\frac{-sin(x)}{sin(x)}-∫-sin(x)(\frac{1}{sin^2(x)})'dx=-1+∫sin(x)\frac{-cos(x)}{(sin(x))^2}=-1-∫\frac{cos(x)}{sin(x)}
⇔I+C=-1-I⇔I=-\frac{1}{2} → I=C1??
 
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You have made a number of sign-related mistakes. You should have obtained I = 1 + I. This seems puzzling, but if you recall that any indefinite integral is defined up to an arbitrary constant, this is normal.

What this really means is that this technique cannot be used with this integral.
 
voko said:
You have made a number of sign-related mistakes. You should have obtained I = 1 + I. This seems puzzling, but if you recall that any indefinite integral is defined up to an arbitrary constant, this is normal.

What this really means is that this technique cannot be used with this integral.

You better check again..I don't think I've done any sign-related mistake..tell me where!..and I don't think there's any problem regarding that's an indefinite integral..I'll add the constant, you're right..but any integral shoul depend on a variable, right??
well I know ∫cot(x) = -ln|sin(x)| ..yet wht's wrong with my approach??
 
abel_ghita said:
You better check again..I don't think I've done any sign-related mistake..

Yes you did. Try this again.
 
Whovian said:
Yes you did. Try this again.

**** :eek:..srry mate..hope I can delete the post :shy:
 
For one obvious point, cos(x) is NOT -(sin(x))'.
 
yes, you're all right! sorry!

though..what if we make it a definite integral..let's say between pi/6 and pi/3 (so we have no problem with the existence of cot in any point)..so we end up again with I=1+I..
wht does it mean?
 
abel_ghita said:

Homework Statement



I=∫cot(x)dx

Homework Equations



wht's wrong in this approach (integrating by parts)

The Attempt at a Solution



I=∫cot(x)dx=∫\frac{cos(x)}{sin(x)}dx=∫\frac{-(sin(x))'}{sin(x)}=\frac{-sin(x)}{sin(x)}-∫-sin(x)(\frac{1}{sin^2(x)})'dx=-1+∫sin(x)\frac{-cos(x)}{(sin(x))^2}=-1-∫\frac{cos(x)}{sin(x)}
⇔I+C=-1-I⇔I=-\frac{1}{2} → I=C1??
This integration can be done using substitution.

The secant & cosecant functions can be integrated using integration by parts.
 
When you do a definite integral, you get I = [1]_a^b + I = 1 - 1 + I = I
 
  • #10
uh.. yes.. thanks a lot!
it seems today i got some lack of attention..
Thanks again!
 

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