Integrating odd functions with infinite discontinuity:

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Integrating odd functions with infinite discontinuities raises questions about convergence. For instance, the integral of 1/x^3 from -1 to 2 can be simplified to avoid the discontinuity at 0, suggesting potential convergence. However, when evaluating integrals like tan(x) from -π/2 to π/2, which also involve discontinuities, the results depend on how the limits are approached. These scenarios are classified as improper integrals, and while they may diverge, they can sometimes be assigned a Cauchy Principal Value that aligns with geometric intuition. Ultimately, understanding these concepts is crucial for determining the behavior of such integrals.
atqamar
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If an odd function has an infinite discontinuity in its domain, can it be integrated (such that a convergent finite emerges) with that domain included?

For example: \int_{-1}^2 \frac{1}{x^{-3}} dx. Intuitively, it can be simplified to \int_1^2 \frac{1}{x^{-3}} dx and thus the infinite discontinuity at 0 is removed.

If that is not doable, can an integral converge if the end points of the domain are infinite discontinuities?

For example: Does \int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} tan(x) dx = 0?

If these kinds of functions are split in two, and limits to \infty are taken, then algebraic manipulation of infinities are required.

Any insight would be appreciated.
 
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You should look into improper integrals?
 
Certainly, these are all improper integrals. But my question is whether the above integrals would converge or diverge. Intuitively/Geometrically, they should converge; but like I said, once the improper integral is carried out, one has to deal with infinities.
 
Look up "Cauchy Principal Value". Strictly, the integrations over the discontinuities are divergent, but they can be assigned a Cauchy Principal Value that appeals to your geometric intuition.
 
Thanks a lot Gib Z! That helped immensely.
 

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