Integrating out of the real domain of a function

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the integration of the natural logarithm function, specifically the integral from -1 to 0 of ln(x). Participants explore the legitimacy of integrating a function outside its defined domain, particularly in the context of complex analysis.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Some participants attempt to apply integration by parts to the integral of ln(x) over the interval [-1, 0], raising questions about the validity of this approach given the function's domain. Others question the implications of integrating outside the function's defined range and explore the concept of complex analysis as a potential avenue for such integration.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing insights into the requirements of the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus and the conditions under which integration can be performed. There is a notable exploration of complex analysis and the transformation of integrals, but no consensus has been reached regarding the legitimacy of the original integration attempt.

Contextual Notes

Participants highlight that ln(x) is only defined for x > 0, which raises concerns about the validity of integrating over the interval [-1, 0]. There is also mention of specific paths in complex analysis that may affect the interpretation of the integral.

pierce15
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Check this out:

\int_{-1}^{0} ln(x) dx

u=ln(x), dv=dx
du=\frac{1}{x},v=x

\int_{-1}^{0} ln(x) dx= x\space ln(x) \|_{-1}^{0} -\int_{-1}^{0} \frac{x}{x} dx
=x\space ln(x) \|_{-1}^{0}-x \|_{-1}^{0}
=\lim_{x\to0} x\space ln(x)-(-ln(-1))-(0-(-1))
\lim_{x\to0} x\space ln(x)=lim_{x\to0} \frac{ln(x)}{1/x}
=\lim_{x\to0} \frac{1/x}{-1/x^2}
=\lim_{x\to0} -x=0

\int_{-1}^{0} ln(x)dx=ln(-1)-1
e^{i\pi}=-1\to ln(-1)=i\pi

\int_{-1}^{0}ln(x)\space dx=i\pi-1

Is this legitimate?

P.S. Why don't my limits look right?
 
Last edited:
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By the way, this is not a textbook style question, I'm wondering whether or not it makes sense to integrate out of a function's domain.
 
piercebeatz said:
Check this out:

\int_{-1}^{0} ln(x) dx
Nothing below is legitimate. For the Fundamental Theorem of calculus to apply, the function (ln(x) here) has to be defined on the interval [-1, 0], and continuous on the interior of this interval. ln(x) is defined only for x > 0.
piercebeatz said:
u=ln(x), dv=dx
du=\frac{1}{x},v=x

\int_{-1}^{0} ln(x) dx= x\space ln(x) \|_{-1}^{0} -\int_{-1}^{0} \frac{x}{x} dx
=x\space ln(x) \|_{-1}^{0}-x \|_{-1}^{0}
=lim_{x\to0} x\space ln(x)-(-ln(-1))-(0-(-1))

lim_{x\to0} x\space ln(x)=lim_{x\to0} \frac{ln(x)}{1/x}
=lim_{x\to0} \frac{1/x}{-1/x^2}
=lim_{x\to0} -x=0

\int_{-1}^{0} ln(x)dx=ln(-1)-1
e^{i\pi}=-1\to ln(-1)=i\pi

\int_{-1}^{0}ln(x)\space dx=i\pi-1

Is this legitimate?

P.S. Why don't my limits look right?

Use \lim, not lim.
 
Mark44 said:
Nothing below is legitimate. For the Fundamental Theorem of calculus to apply, the function (ln(x) here) has to be defined on the interval [-1, 0], and continuous on the interior of this interval. ln(x) is defined only for x > 0.

So one can never integrate out of a function's domain? What about in complex analysis?
 
Last edited:
piercebeatz said:
So one can never integrate out of a function's domain? What about in complex analysis?
Reinterpreting your integral in the complex plane, we need r >= 0, so over the x interval (-1,0) we will have θ=π:
\int_{-1}^0ln(z)dz = \int_{1}^0(ln(r)+i\pi) d(-r) = \left[r ln(r) - r + i\pi r \right]_0^1 = i\pi - 1
 
haruspex said:
Reinterpreting your integral in the complex plane, we need r >= 0, so over the x interval (-1,0) we will have θ=π:
\int_{-1}^0ln(z)dz = \int_{1}^0(ln(r)+i\pi) d(-r)

How did you go to polar coordinates?

Also, is integrating the function without reinterpreting it into the complex plane o.k. (i.e. is my way of arriving at the same answer legitimate)?
 
Last edited:
piercebeatz said:
How did you go to polar coordinates?
Not polar co-ordinates (which would be (r,θ)) but the polar form of complex variables (z=re). It's better not to confuse the two.
is integrating the function without reinterpreting it into the complex plane o.k.
No, for the reasons given in other posts.
 
haruspex said:
Not polar co-ordinates (which would be (r,θ)) but the polar form of complex variables (z=re.

OK, but what did you do to transform the integral into that form?
 
piercebeatz said:
OK, but what did you do to transform the integral into that form?
First, you need to assume a specific path, P (though for the ln() function it won't matter as long as we don't go around the origin to get there). Assume it's along the negative real axis. So at all points in the path, z is of the form re.
\int_Pln(z)dz = \int_P(ln(re^{iπ}) dre^{iπ}= e^{iπ}\int_{r=1}^0(ln(r)+iπ) dr = -\int_{r=1}^0(ln(r)+iπ) dr
= \int_{r=0}^1(ln(r)+iπ) = \left[(r ln(r)-r+iπr)\right]_0^1 = -1+iπ
 
  • #10
haruspex said:
First, you need to assume a specific path, P (though for the ln() function it won't matter as long as we don't go around the origin to get there). Assume it's along the negative real axis. So at all points in the path, z is of the form re.
\int_Pln(z)dz = \int_P(ln(re^{iπ}) dre^{iπ}= e^{iπ}\int_{r=1}^0(ln(r)+iπ) dr = -\int_{r=1}^0(ln(r)+iπ) dr
= \int_{r=0}^1(ln(r)+iπ) = \left[(r ln(r)-r+iπr)\right]_0^1 = -1+iπ

Alright. What exactly do you mean by a "path"? And why did the limits of integration change?
 

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