High School Integration from "Area Under Curve" Perspective: Explained

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The discussion centers on the integration of the function from x = 0.5 to x = 1, where the integral evaluates to \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\), despite the presence of a vertical asymptote at x = 1. Participants clarify that the area under the curve is finite because the function approaches zero faster than it increases, which is a common occurrence in calculus. They emphasize the importance of considering limits when dealing with improper integrals. The conversation draws parallels between the convergence of integrals and infinite series, highlighting that both can yield finite results despite initial intuitions suggesting otherwise. Overall, the integration from the "area under curve" perspective can be misleading without proper limit considerations.
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TL;DR
$$\int_\frac{1}{2}^1 \frac{x}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}dx$$
I can calculate the value of the integration, it will be ##\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}##

But if I draw the function and consider the area bounded by the curve and x-axis from x = 0.5 to x = 1, it seems that the area will be infinite because x = 1 is vertical asymptote.

Why can't I consider from "area under curve" perspective to calculate this integration? Thanks
 
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You have an improper integral, you need to consider limits. Define$$I(a) = \int_{\frac{1}{2}}^a \frac{x}{\sqrt{1-x^2}} = \left[ -\sqrt{1-x^2} \right]_{\frac{1}{2}}^{a} = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} - \sqrt{1-a^2}$$Then take the limit$$\lim_{a \rightarrow 1} I(a) = \lim_{a\rightarrow 1} \left( \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} - \sqrt{1-a^2} \right) = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}$$
 
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songoku said:
it seems that the area will be infinite because x = 1 is vertical asymptote.
As Hamlet said I know not "seems". The integral tells you that the area is in fact finite.
 
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Thank you very much etotheipi and Perok
 
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songoku said:
Summary:: $$\int_\frac{1}{2}^1 \frac{x}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}dx$$

I can calculate the value of the integration, it will be ##\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}##

But if I draw the function and consider the area bounded by the curve and x-axis from x = 0.5 to x = 1, it seems that the area will be infinite because x = 1 is vertical asymptote.

Why can't I consider from "area under curve" perspective to calculate this integration? Thanks
Intuitively, the graph gets thin faster than it goes up. The result of the integration shows that the area is finite. That happens a lot.
 
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FactChecker said:
Intuitively, the graph gets thin faster than it goes up. The result of the integration shows that the area is finite. That happens a lot.
I always thought the area of such case would always be infinite. Now I think maybe the case is similar to sum to infinity of convergent geometric series.

Thank you very much FactChecker
 
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songoku said:
I always thought the area of such case would always be infinite. Now I think maybe the case is similar to sum to infinity of convergent geometric series.

Thank you very much FactChecker

Remember integrals are approximated above and below by infinite series. Here, make a substition ##u=1-x^2## (let's not worry about whether this calculation is actually valid), to get

$$\int_{3/4}^{0} \frac{-\frac{1}{2} du}{\sqrt{u}} $$
$$\frac{1}{2} \int_{0}^{3/4} \frac{du}{\sqrt{u}}.$$

Now do the substition ##v=1/u##
$$\frac{1}{2} \int_{4/3}^{\infty} \sqrt{v} \frac{dv}{v^2}$$

This last integral is approximated by Riemann sums that look like (when bounding both from below and above) ##\sum \frac{1}{n^{3/2}}## and therefore it converges.
 
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songoku said:
Now I think maybe the case is similar to sum to infinity of convergent geometric series.
Exactly.
 
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Office_Shredder said:
Remember integrals are approximated above and below by infinite series. Here, make a substition ##u=1-x^2## (let's not worry about whether this calculation is actually valid), to get
It is valid but ##u=\sqrt{1-x^2}## is nice as well.

What infinite series are you bounding this integral with and why?
 
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lurflurf said:
It is valid but ##u=\sqrt{1-x^2}## is nice as well.

What infinite series are you bounding this integral with and why?

You can draw rectangles of width 1 above the graph of ##1/x^{3/2}## to show that if ##\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^{3/2}}## converges, then so does ##\int_1^{\infty} \frac{1}{x^{3/2}} dx##. This is equivalent to the convergence of the integral in the original post. My point was that the op said something about how integrals converging feels like infinite sums converging, and to demonstrate how the convergence of the integral in this thread is literally equivalent to the convergence of an infinite series.
 
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songoku said:
I always thought the area of such case would always be infinite. Now I think maybe the case is similar to sum to infinity of convergent geometric series.
One of the most amazing results in mathematics is that the area under the infinite Gaussian curve is: $$\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} e^{-x^2} dx = \sqrt \pi$$
 
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  • #12
Thank you very much for all the help and explanation etotheipi, Perok, FactChecker, Office_Shredder, lurflurf
 

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