Invariant subspaces of representations

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the existence of one-dimensional invariant subspaces for a representation of the group of integers on a three-dimensional real vector space, specifically using a given matrix. Participants explore the relationship between the representation, eigenvectors, and invariant subspaces, while addressing challenges in understanding the concepts involved.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • Carla introduces a representation defined by a matrix and questions whether it has any one-dimensional invariant subspaces, expressing confusion about the relationship between the representation and eigenvectors.
  • Some participants clarify that a one-dimensional subspace must be spanned by an eigenvector of the matrix, suggesting that the invariant subspace would be of the form W = {(x,x,x) | x ∈ ℝ} if (1,1,1) is indeed an eigenvector.
  • There is a discussion about the implications of the matrix being equal to the identity matrix at certain powers, raising questions about whether this affects the invariant subspace.
  • One participant suggests a possible typo in the matrix and provides an alternative matrix, along with its characteristic polynomial, leading to a discussion about eigenvalues and eigenvectors.
  • Participants explore the implications of the eigenvalues derived from the characteristic polynomial and confirm that (1,1,1) is an eigenvector corresponding to the eigenvalue 6.
  • Carla summarizes her understanding, stating that the invariant subspace can be expressed in terms of the eigenvector and its corresponding eigenvalue, and she presents a mathematical justification for her conclusion.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

While there is some agreement on the identification of the eigenvector and the form of the invariant subspace, there are also points of contention regarding the correctness of the original matrix and its implications for the eigenvalues. The discussion remains somewhat unresolved regarding the initial matrix's accuracy and its effect on the conclusions drawn.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the matrix may have a typo, which could affect the eigenvalues and the resulting invariant subspaces. The discussion also highlights the dependence on the definitions of invariant subspaces and eigenvectors, as well as the specific properties of the matrix in question.

Carla1985
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Let $\varrho :\mathbb{Z}\rightarrow GL_3(\mathbb{R})$ be the representation given by $\varrho (n)=A^n$ where

A=$\begin{pmatrix}
2 & 5 & -1 \\
2 & \frac{5}{2} & \frac{11}{2} \\
6 & \frac{-2}{2} & \frac{3}{2} \\
\end{pmatrix}$

Does ρ have any 1-dimensional invariant subspaces? Do I have to divide up the elements in the representation with their corresponding eigenvectors. I know From $A^4$ the matrix is just a scaler of the previous 4, i.e. $A^4=I$, $A^5=A$ etc and their eigenvectors are the same then?

Im struggling to understand this chapter we are doing a little so any help is much appreciated.

Carla x
 
Last edited by a moderator:
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Carla1985 said:
Let $\varrho :\mathbb{Z}\rightarrow GL_3(\mathbb{R})$ be the representation given by $\varrho (n)=A^n$ where

A=$\begin{pmatrix}
2 & 5 & -1 \\
2 & \frac{5}{2} & \frac{11}{2} \\
6 & \frac{-2}{2} & \frac{3}{2} \\
\end{pmatrix}$

Does ρ have any 1-dimensional invariant subspaces? Do I have to divide up the elements in the representation with their corresponding eigenvectors. I know From $A^4$ the matrix is just a scaler of the previous 4, i.e. $A^4=I$, $A^5=A$ etc and their eigenvectors are the same then?

Im struggling to understand this chapter we are doing a little so any help is much appreciated.

Carla x


Hey Carla! :)Here's a definition from http://www.win.tue.nl/~aeb/2WF02/fgreps.pdf:

Let G be a finite group.
A linear representation of G is a homomorphism ρ : G → GL(V ) where GL(V ) is the group of invertable linear transformations of the vector space V.
A subspace W of V is called ρ(G)-invariant if ρ(g)W ⊆ W for all g ∈ G.
A 1-dimensional subspace of $\mathbb R^3$ would be the span of some vector $v$.
So $W = \{\mu v : \mu \in \mathbb R \}$.

What we need is that $\varrho(n)W ⊆ W$ for all $n \in \mathbb Z$.
What does this expand to for, say, $n=1$?

ILS x
 
Last edited:
Carla1985 said:
Let $\varrho :\mathbb{Z}\rightarrow GL_3(\mathbb{R})$ be the representation given by $\varrho (n)=A^n$ where

A=$\begin{pmatrix}
2 & 5 & -1 \\
2 & \frac{5}{2} & \frac{11}{2} \\
6 & \frac{-2}{2} & \frac{3}{2} \\
\end{pmatrix}$

Does ρ have any 1-dimensional invariant subspaces? Do I have to divide up the elements in the representation with their corresponding eigenvectors. I know From $A^4$ the matrix is just a scaler of the previous 4, i.e. $A^4=I$, $A^5=A$ etc and their eigenvectors are the same then?

Im struggling to understand this chapter we are doing a little so any help is much appreciated.

Carla x


Let $G = \mathbb{Z}$ be additive group.
Let $V = \mathbb{R}^3$ be real vector space.
With linear action of $G$ on $V$ given by,
$$ n\cdot x = A^n x \text{ for }n \in G, x\in V$$

Say $W$ is a one-dimensional subspace of $V$, so $W = \left< w \right>$ is spanned by a non-zero vector in $\mathbb{R}^3$. Since $W$ is invariant under $G$ it means in particular that $1\cdot w \in W$, in other words, $Aw = kw$ for some $k\in \mathbb{R}$.

This shows that an invariant one-dimensional subspace of $V$ must be spanned by an eigenvector of $A$. Now look for the eigenvectors.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
I like Serena said:
Hey Carla! :)Here's a definition from http://www.win.tue.nl/~aeb/2WF02/fgreps.pdf:
Let G be a finite group.
A linear representation of G is a homomorphism ρ : G → GL(V ) where GL(V ) is the group of invertable linear transformations of the vector space V.
A subspace W of V is called ρ(G)-invariant if ρ(g)W ⊆ W for all g ∈ G.
A 1-dimensional subspace of $\mathbb R^3$ would be the span of some vector $v$.
So $W = \{\mu v : \mu \in \mathbb R \}$.

What we need is that $\varrho(n)W ⊆ W$ for all $n \in \mathbb Z$.
What does this expand to for, say, $n=1$?

ILS x


With n=1 I have $AW⊆W$

The only eigenvector for A is (1,1,1). Does this mean my span and the invariant subspace would be W ={(x,x,x)∈R3 |x∈R}?

There are elements of the representation that don't fall into this though (every 4th element), is that ok?

Thanks, I think I'm slowly starting to understand it, I know my brain is on a go slow not helped by the fact I was up at 5am with the kids this morning :p
 
Carla1985 said:
With n=1 I have $AW⊆W$

More specifically $\varrho(1)W = \{\varrho(1)\mu v : \mu \in \mathbb R \}
= \{\mu A v : \mu \in \mathbb R \}$.
This is only contained in $W$ iff $v$ is an eigenvector of $A$.
The only eigenvector for A is (1,1,1). Does this mean my span and the invariant subspace would be W ={(x,x,x)∈R3 |x∈R}?


That would be the only candidate then.
There are elements of the representation that don't fall into this though (every 4th element), is that ok?

I assume you are referring to $\varrho(4) = A^4$, which is apparently equal to $I$?
If so, is $I(1,1,1) \in W = \{\mu (1,1,1) : \mu \in \mathbb R \}$?
 
Carla1985 said:
The only eigenvector for A is (1,1,1). Does this mean my span and the invariant subspace would be W ={(x,x,x)∈R3 |x∈R}?


I did not compute the eigenvectors of A but assuming it is (1,1,1) then you are correct that W = <(1,1,1)> which is exactly how you described it.

There are elements of the representation that don't fall into this though (every 4th element), is that ok?


What do you mean by that?
 
I think there is a typo in your original matrix.

I believe the matrix actually under consideration must be:

[math]A = \begin{bmatrix}2&5&-1\\-2&\frac{5}{2}&\frac{11}{2}\\6&-\frac{3}{2}&\frac{3}{2} \end{bmatrix}[/math]

which satisfies:

$A^4 - 1296I = 0$

(1,1,1) is indeed an eigenvalue of this matrix, and since $A$ satisfies the polynomial:

$x^4 - 1296 = (x^2 + 36)(x + 6)(x - 6)$

any eigenvalue must be a root of this polynomial (so we have just two possible eigenvalues, 6 and -6).

It turns out the characteristic polynomial is $(x - 6)(x^2 + 36)$, which rules out -6 as an eigenvalue. Solving for $E_6$ we find the space is indeed spanned by (1,1,1).

It is trivial that if:

$Av = \lambda v$ that:

$A^kv = \lambda^kv$

so any power of $A$ has the same eigenvectors as $A$.

Thus $\langle(1,1,1)\rangle = E_6$ is indeed a one-dimensional invariant subspace of $\rho$.
 
Last edited:
Hi, thanks all, I woke up this morning and it all started to make sense (eventually!). Here's how I have wrote it all out, hopefully its right lol:

We need to find a 1 dimensional subspace of $\mathbb{R}^3$, call this U. As its 1 dimensional subspace then any element of U is an eigenvector of $\varrho (n)$ with corresponding eigenvalue $\lambda_n$.

Since A has eigenvector (1,1,1) with eigenvalue 6 then (1,1,1) is our 1 dimensional basis element, call this u.

So $Au=6u$

And then:
$A^2u=A\lambda u=\lambda(Au)=\lambda(\lambda u)=\lambda^2u$

So then for any value of n:
$A^n u=\lambda^n u$

ie:
$\varrho (n)(u)=\lambda^n (u)\ \ \forall n \in \mathbb{N}$

Hence every element of U is a scaler multiple of u and U is a 1 dimensional invariant subspace of U.

Carla x
 
Looks fine to me! :)

ILS x
 
  • #10
Looks good.
 

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