In his proof of the IFT, on p. 36 of "Calculus on Manifolds," Spivak states: "If the theorem is true for [tex]\lambda[/tex][tex]^{-1}[/tex] [tex]\circ[/tex]f, it is clearly true for f. Therefore we may assume at the outset that [tex]\lambda[/tex] is the identity.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I don't understand why we may assume that.

thanks for your help!

Ken Cohen

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# Inverse Function Theorem in Spivak

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