On p. 36 of "Calculus on Manifolds" Spivak writes:(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

"If the theorem is true for ([tex]\lambda[/tex][tex]^{-1}[/tex])[tex]\circ[/tex]f , it is clearly true for f."

This far I understand. However, he next says:

"Therefore we may assume at the outset that [tex]\lambda[/tex] is the identity."

I don't understand how this follows, since he previously defined [tex]\lambda[/tex] = Df(x).

I would appreciate someone adding a bit more explanation here.

Thank you.

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Spivak Inverse Function Theorem Proof

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**