paulb203 said:
Does the y have anything to do with the y axis as in x,y coordinates axes?
Yes, as already stated.
But the body of your post doesn't seem to have anything to do with the thread title - "Inverse Functions: Why rewrite as y=f(x) ?"
I'll go out on a limb and assume you mean something like this:
If y = f(x) = 2x + 3, what is the inverse function?
In this case, it's pretty simple.
##y = 2x + 3 \Leftrightarrow x = \frac{y - 3}2 = \frac y 2 - \frac 3 2##
So ##x = \frac y 2 - \frac 3 2## is the inverse relationship between x and y.
If you graph y = 2x + 3 its graph will be
exactly the same as that of ##x = f^{-1}(y) = y/2 - 3/2##.
In response to the implied question in your thread title:
Inverse Functions: Why rewrite as y=f(x) ?
Strictly speaking, we don't. We write the inverse
as a function of x, but not as f(x), since the formula for f has already been given.
Many or most precalculus textbooks make a big deal out of writing the inverse function as a function of the independent variable (which is usually x), so we end up with the inverse being ##f^{-1}(x) = \frac x 2 - \frac 3 2##. Because we have switched the variables, this graph is now different from the one we started with.
In my view, the whole business of swapping the independent and dependent variables is unfortunate and misguided, because students often get the idea that this switch business is what is important. The important part is that given y in terms of x, can you find a formula for x in terms of y? That is, can you solve for x in the original function definition?
In subsequent classes (e.g., calculus and up) it is often the case that your have a formula for y in terms of x, but you need the equivalent formula for x in terms of y. IOW, you need to solve the given equation for x, with ##x = f^{-1}(y)##.