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Inverse of velocity function? *Have pics of attempt*

  1. Sep 25, 2009 #1
    1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data

    http://img29.imageshack.us/img29/4863/12544262.jpg [Broken]

    2. Relevant equations



    3. The attempt at a solution

    I don't know if I did this right. If I did, I can't find what meaning the inverse of this functions has :S. Any help is appreciated.

    http://img59.imageshack.us/img59/7153/27743903.jpg [Broken]
     
    Last edited by a moderator: May 4, 2017
  2. jcsd
  3. Sep 25, 2009 #2

    lanedance

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    f is a map from v to m, ie
    m = f(v)

    f-1 will be the map from m to v, ie
    v = f-1(m)
     
  4. Sep 25, 2009 #3
    I think I understand this, but what does it mean physically speaking in terms of mass and the velocity?
     
  5. Sep 25, 2009 #4

    lanedance

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    not too sure... maybe that for a given object there is one to one correspondence between mass & magnitude of velocity, so f-1, is the unique map from mass to velocity magnitude
     
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