- #1

Blanchdog

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**Homework Statement::**Why is the heaviside function in the inverse laplace transform of 1?

**Relevant Equations::**N/A

This is a small segment of a larger problem I've been working on, and in my book it gives the transform of 1 as 1/s and vice versa. But as I've looked online for help in figuring parts of this out, I keep seeing that the heaviside function is the inverse laplace transform of 1/s, when I would think (according to my book) that it should just be 1. Can anyone explain this?