MHB Investigate Convergence of tanx Series: Find Common Ratio & Sum to Infinity

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The discussion focuses on investigating the convergence of the sequence tan(x), tan(2x), tan(3x), ..., tan(nx) for x in the interval (-90, 90 degrees). The series can be expressed as a geometric series, which converges when the absolute value of tan(x) is less than 1, specifically for -π/4 < x < π/4. The sum to infinity of the series is given by the formula 1/(1 - tan(x)). There is confusion regarding the evaluation of this sum at x = 45 degrees, where tan(45) equals 1, leading to division by zero. The conclusion emphasizes leaving the sum expressed as 1/(1 - tan(x)) for values of x that do not cause divergence.
Alexeia
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Hi,

Please help me with this question: Investigate the convergence of the sequence tanx;tan2x;tan3x;...;tannx for xE(-90;90 degrees). Steps to follow: Find common ratio. Draw the graph. For which values will x converge. Determine sum to infinity.

I did try to solve, but file type too big to upload my answers.

Please help..

Thanks
 
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Alexeia said:
Hi,

Please help me with this question: Investigate the convergence of the sequence tanx;tan2x;tan3x;...;tannx for xE(-90;90 degrees). Steps to follow: Find common ratio. Draw the graph. For which values will x converge. Determine sum to infinity.

I did try to solve, but file type too big to upload my answers.

Please help..

Thanks

Setting $\tan x = \xi$ the series to be analized is $\displaystyle \sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} \xi^{n}$, which is 'geometrical' and converges for $|\xi|< 1 \implies -\frac{\pi}{4} < x < \frac{\pi}{4}$... in case of convergence is $\displaystyle \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \tan^{n} x = \frac{1}{1 - \tan x}$...

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$

P.S. The formula for geometric sums is in...

Geometric Series -- from Wolfram MathWorld
 
Last edited:
Thank you,

The last part, how do you derive that the sum to infinity is 1 \div(1 - tanx)? Is it according to the Sum to infinity formula? To find the answer do I use 1 \div(1 - tan(45))? 1\div1 - tan(45) , Cant divide by 0.. ? Or do I just leave it as 1\div(1 - tanx)
 
Good morning I have been refreshing my memory about Leibniz differentiation of integrals and found some useful videos from digital-university.org on YouTube. Although the audio quality is poor and the speaker proceeds a bit slowly, the explanations and processes are clear. However, it seems that one video in the Leibniz rule series is missing. While the videos are still present on YouTube, the referring website no longer exists but is preserved on the internet archive...

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