Investigating the Inequality of $\frac{\pi^2}{4}$ and $\frac{-\pi^2}{12}$

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the inequality between the values of $\frac{\pi^2}{4}$ and $\frac{-\pi^2}{12}$ as derived from the Fourier series of the function $f(\theta) = \theta^2$. The equation $$\theta^2 = \frac{\pi^2}{3} + 4\sum_{n = 1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}\cos n\theta$$ is established, and when evaluated at $\theta = \frac{\pi}{2}$, it leads to the conclusion that the series converges to $\frac{\pi^2}{4}$. The critical insight is recognizing that the cosine term evaluates to zero for odd integers, simplifying the series to only include even integers, thus correcting the initial misunderstanding regarding the series' convergence.

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$$
\frac{\pi^2}{3} + 4\sum_{n = 1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}\cos n\theta.
$$
Let's look at $f\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right) = \frac{\pi^2}{4}$.
\begin{alignat*}{3}
\frac{\pi^2}{3} + \sum_{n = 1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}\cos\frac{n\pi}{2} & = & \frac{\pi^2}{3} + \left(\frac{-1}{4} + \frac{1}{16} - \frac{1}{36} + \cdots\right)\\
\frac{1}{4}\sum_{n = 1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{n^2} & = & \frac{\pi^2}{4} - \frac{\pi^2}{3}\\
& = &
\end{alignat*}
This isn't going to equate to
$$
\sum_{n = 1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{n^2} = -\frac{\pi^2}{12}
$$
What is wrong?
 
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dwsmith said:
$$
\frac{\pi^2}{3} + 4\sum_{n = 1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}\cos n\theta.
$$
Let's look at $f\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right) = \frac{\pi^2}{4}$.
\begin{alignat*}{3}
\frac{\pi^2}{3} + \sum_{n = 1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}\cos\frac{n\pi}{2} & = & \frac{\pi^2}{3} + \left(\frac{-1}{4} + \frac{1}{16} - \frac{1}{36} + \cdots\right)\\
\frac{1}{4}\sum_{n = 1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{n^2} & = & \frac{\pi^2}{4} - \frac{\pi^2}{3}\\
& = &
\end{alignat*}
This isn't going to equate to
$$
\sum_{n = 1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{n^2} = -\frac{\pi^2}{12}
$$
What is wrong?
It would have been a great deal easier to understand this question if you had thought to mention that this is the Fourier series of the function $f(\theta)= \theta^2.$

You have given the Fourier series correctly, and the function is equal to the sum of the series, so you should be starting with the equation $$\theta^2 = \frac{\pi^2}{3} + 4\sum_{n = 1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}\cos n\theta.$$ When you put $\theta = \pi/2$ this becomes $$\frac{\pi^2}4 = \frac{\pi^2}{3} + 4\sum_{n = 1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}\cos \bigl(\tfrac{n\pi}2\bigr).$$ The value of $\cos \bigl(\tfrac{n\pi}2\bigr)$ is zero when $n$ is odd, and it is $(-1)^k$ when $n=2k$ is even. Therefore $$\frac{\pi^2}4 = \frac{\pi^2}{3} + 4\sum_{k = 1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^k}{(2k)^2}.$$ Notice the $(2k)^2$ in the denominator!
 

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