Is 1/(1+e^-(x)) equivalent to 1-e^-(x) when x is very large?

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SUMMARY

The expression 1/(1+e^-(x)) is approximately equal to 1-e^-(x) when x is greater than 50, particularly in the context of semiconductor hole density theorems. This approximation holds true as x approaches infinity, demonstrating that both expressions exhibit similar limiting behavior. The discussion emphasizes that the method of approximation should not invalidate the correctness of the result, especially when the underlying mathematical principles are sound. The author argues for the validity of their approach despite receiving an incorrect marking on their exam.

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Cilly28
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Long story short, I said on an exam that...

1/(1+e^-(x)) =~(is nearly equal to) 1-e^-(x); note* x > 50 , they are also inversely proportional when x<-50 but that isn't specific to the problem

I used this to prove a theorem regarding hole density in semiconductors ""when x is very very large""...It was marked incorrectly but the question stated that the magnitude of x would be >50. I noticed the limiting behavior of this as it goes from 50 to infinity and they appear to be equal, especially when approximations are made in the 'books proof' to simplify the equation, mainly throwing low integers away that do not effect a number of much higher magnitude.

If I made a correct approximation and still obtained the same result equation, just because I did it differently shouldn't make it incorrect, would anyone agree?
 
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The apporximation is correct. I suggest you ask the person who marked it incorrect explain why. It may be that you were supposed to justify the approximation in more detail.
 

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