SI defines one meter as the distance travelled by light in one upon 299792458(=k) seconds, from which we get that, D=c*k, where k is marked above. So, let's consider two frames on at rest wrt the earth(f1) and another moving at, say 0.99*c(f2). SR says that the time dilates for f2 wrt f1. And also say that someone is trying to mark a meter distance, from their own frames. As time is different for them, doesn't it mean that the one meter mark they have made is different? Is this really happens?(I mean, am I correct? Or just I'm confusing things?) Does this occur along with Lorentz contraction? Thanks in advance.