Is Bell's Logic Aimed at Decoupling Correlated Outcomes in Quantum Mechanics?

  • Context: Graduate 
  • Thread starter Thread starter Gordon Watson
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Logic
Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the implications and interpretations of Bell's logic and mathematics in the context of quantum mechanics, particularly regarding correlated outcomes in EPR-Bell experiments. Participants explore the nuances of Bell's arguments, the validity of his logic, and the relevance of his theorem to the physics community.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants suggest separating Bell's logic from his mathematics to better understand the implications of his work.
  • There is a question about why Bell would want to decouple correlated outcomes, with some expressing skepticism about the necessity of this separation.
  • One participant argues that Bell's logic is flawed and questions the significance of violations of Bell inequalities, suggesting that they may not provide insights into nature.
  • Another participant reflects on the general perception within the physics community that Bell's theorem may not hold significant importance, regardless of its correctness.
  • Some participants challenge the assertion that Bell's logic is flawed, requesting peer-reviewed references to support such claims and emphasizing the need to understand his work in its original context.
  • There are mentions of alternative derivations of Bell's theorem by other physicists, indicating that the logic can be approached in various ways.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the validity of Bell's logic, with some asserting flaws while others defend it. The discussion reflects a lack of consensus on the importance of Bell's theorem and its implications for quantum mechanics.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note that the discussion may depend on interpretations of probability theory and the definitions of variables involved in Bell's framework. There are unresolved questions regarding the implications of Bell's lambda and the nature of correlations in quantum outcomes.

Who May Find This Useful

This discussion may be of interest to those studying quantum mechanics, particularly in relation to Bell's theorem, as well as individuals exploring the philosophical implications of quantum correlations and the interpretations of probability in physics.

  • #211
Maaneli said:
The conclusion with respect to standard QM is that standard QM (SQM) cannot be embedded within a locally causal theory of hidden variables, because SQM predicts nonlocal correlations between measurement outcomes at spacelike separated detectors. SQM is a causal theory because the time-evolution of the SQM wavefunction is fixed by only an initial condition, and not, for example, by "two-time" boundary conditions. So one can deduce that SQM is incompatible with local causality because SQM is a nonlocal causal theory.

What could it mean to say that there is no "cause"? One (admittedly vague) possibility might be if the wavefunction was defined in terms of Block Time (where there is no objective distinction between past, present, and future instants of time). Then there would be no objective direction of causation, because the wavefunction would be defined throughout an eternal 4-D Block Universe.

Re my drift, essentially yes. The fact that standard QM is a nonlocal causal theory, naturally suggests (just as a logical possibility) that it might be possible to embed it into a nonlocal causal theory of hidden variables. And the deBB theory just happens to be an example of such a logically possible theory (though it is by no means uniquely implied by Bell's theorem).

Very well said! :smile: As you are meaning these terms, I agree with everything you are saying. I think it is interesting that nonlocal can properly be used in several contexts here.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #212
DrChinese said:
Very well said! :smile: As you are meaning these terms, I agree with everything you are saying. I think it is interesting that nonlocal can properly be used in several contexts here.

Cool, so ... would I be right to conclude that you now agree that realism and locality are not independent assumptions in Bell's theorem?
 
  • #213
Maaneli said:
Cool, so ... would I be right to conclude that you now agree that realism and locality are not independent assumptions in Bell's theorem?

As said, it comes down to the words. You said: "...standard QM (SQM) cannot be embedded within a locally causal theory of hidden variables..." To me, that is essentially the same as saying "standard QM cannot be embedded within a local realistic theory."

I also like the way you say that QM makes predictions which are nonlocal causal. Yet that kind of nonlocality is quite different that the nonlocal connections in Bohmian type theories. In entanglement situations, the nonlocal connection relates to spin conservation. The nonlocal connection is associated with the entangled particles and apparently none other. And there is no apparent cause to the spin value.

In BM, there are nonlocal influences between all particle positions, and these are sufficient to explain the appearance of spin values. So in my book, these are very different uses of the term nonlocal (not that you were saying otherwise).

I believe the Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle is essentially something which implies both nonlocality and contextuality. So that could be construed as to imply nonlocal nonrealism. So yes, you could say that those are not separate independent assumptions from that side. But either way, the question is: could a local contextual theory be feasible? I still don't see why not.
 
  • #214
DrC,

Thanks for your comments. Unfortunately, I'm very busy at the moment and may not be able to give a thoughtful reply any time soon. But I do intend to reply eventually.Maaneli
 
  • #215
Maaneli said:
... the definition of local causality that Bell uses in his theorem relies on his realism assumption (the existence of beables).
The part in the parentheses can be made more precise so as to read:

... (that (certain relevant) beables exist as local beables).
_________________________
_________________________
Maaneli said:
... What one can conclude ... is that standard QM is nonlocal causal.
DrChinese said:
I thought the conclusion was a denial of local causality. What you say is almost the same thing, but then I get stuck on the word "causal".

What one concludes is that, according to standard QM, the "Alice-and-Bob scenario" involves a phenomenon which is either:

(i) causally nonlocal ,

or

(ii) nonseparable – (i.e. "state" nonseparability) across a spacelike region of spacetime .
___________

Or, equivalently in Ruta's words:

(at least) one of the following applies:

(i) causal nonlocality ,

or

(ii) constitutive nonlocality .
___________

Or, equivalently in Bell's language:

(at least) one of the following is the case:

(i) violation of "local causality" ,

or

(ii) existence of "nonlocal beables" .
___________

And finally, equivalently, in DrC's words:

(i) "causal locality" does not hold ,

or

(ii) "reality" is dependent upon "observation" (i.e. Alice's reality is dependent upon Bob's choice of measurement, and/or vice versa – but not necessarily causally so) .
_____

e.g. from two posts from another thread:
DrChinese said:
... either [causal] locality does not hold, or reality is dependent on observation.

DrChinese said:
... Bob's reality is determined by a choice of measurement by Alice [along with the associated outcome].
_________________________
_________________________

... Okay, now going back:
DrChinese said:
... but then I get stuck on the word "causal". What if there is no cause? Not that I would know what that means.

This sounds like one of the places I have been stuck at for some time now, namely:

What does it (really) mean to say the following?

Alice's reality is dependent upon Bob's choice of measurement (and/or vice versa) – but not causally so.

(... Or is that not even (really) how to say it?)
 
Last edited:
  • #216
Eye_in_the_Sky said:
And finally, equivalently, in DrC's words:

(i) "causal locality" does not hold ,

or

(ii) "reality" is dependent upon "observation" (i.e. Alice's reality is dependent upon Bob's choice of measurement, and/or vice versa – but not necessarily causally so) .
_____

e.g. from two posts from another thread:


... Okay, now going back:


This sounds like one of the places I have been stuck at for some time now, namely:

What does it (really) mean to say the following?

Alice's reality is dependent upon Bob's choice of measurement (and/or vice versa) – but not causally so.

(... Or is that not even (really) how to say it?)

See, it turns into a bit of a sticky wicket. :smile:

All I ever end up with is realizing that one classical notion - at a minimum - must go. If you juggle around enough, you can pick it yourself. Determinism, causality, observer independence, locality, separability, ...
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 28 ·
Replies
28
Views
5K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 63 ·
3
Replies
63
Views
10K
  • · Replies 63 ·
3
Replies
63
Views
8K
Replies
18
Views
2K
  • · Replies 75 ·
3
Replies
75
Views
12K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
8
Views
5K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K