Is cos(x - (pi/2)) equal to cos(x)tan(x)?

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SUMMARY

The identity cos(x - (π/2)) = cos(x)tan(x) is incorrect. The correct transformation shows that cos(x - (π/2)) simplifies to sin(x) due to the fact that cos(π/2) = 0. The right-hand side, cos(x)tan(x), does not equal sin(x) when evaluated, confirming that the original equation does not hold true. Therefore, the conclusion is that cos(x - (π/2)) = sin(x) is the valid identity.

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cos(x-(pie/2))=cos(x)tan(x)

I have to verify this identity and can't seem to figure it out. cos (x-y)=cos x * cos y + sin x * sin y
well since cos y = 0, it kind of eliminates that side of the equation and I end up with sinx * sin1
Did I go about this all wrong?
 
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It is sin(x)*1 not sin 1, because sin(pi/2)=1. So far you have cos(x-pi/2)=sin(x), which is correct. Now write out the right hand side of your original equation and see what you get.
 
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