Is Every Set Containing a Countably Infinite Subset Uncountable?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the question of whether every set containing a countably infinite subset must be uncountable. Participants explore the implications of set relationships, particularly focusing on examples involving the natural numbers, integers, rationals, and reals.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants question the validity of the statement by considering specific sets and their properties, discussing whether a proper subset being countably infinite implies the larger set must be uncountable.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants offering differing viewpoints and examples. Some suggest that the original statement may be false, while others provide counterexamples to illustrate their reasoning. The exploration of cardinality and the properties of infinite sets is ongoing.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the definitions and properties of countable and uncountable sets, with specific examples being used to challenge assumptions. The nature of proper subsets and their cardinalities is a focal point of the discussion.

siifuthun
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This is the question, and we're supposed to answer if it's true or false:

If A is a countably infinite set, and A is a proper subset of another set B,
then B is uncountable.

I thought this was false, because if A is infinite and countable, then B should also be infinite and countable in the same way A is if it's a proper subset of B. Could we list elements of A, then elements of B that are not contained in A?
 
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Which of [itex]\mathbb{N}, \mathbb{Z}, \mathbb{Q}, \mathbb{R}[/itex] are contained in which? Which ones are countable? :smile:
 
Data said:
Which of [itex]\mathbb{N}, \mathbb{Z}, \mathbb{Q}, \mathbb{R}[/itex] are contained in which? Which ones are countable? :smile:

If A is the set containing natural numbers, and B is the set containing real numbers, then B would have to be uncountable right?
 
siifuthun said:
If A is the set containing natural numbers, and B is the set containing real numbers, then B would have to be uncountable right?

But what if A is the natural numbers and B is the integers?
 
d_leet said:
But what if A is the natural numbers and B is the integers?

That's a good point. In that case it would be countable. So I guess in that case the answer is false, seeing that B can be countable or uncountable.

Thanks.
 
The defining property of infinite sets is that they have proper subsets of the same cardinality as the set.
 
StatusX said:
The defining property of infinite sets is that they have proper subsets of the same cardinality as the set.

So, since B is infinite (and it should be if A is, correct?), then it should have the same cardinality as A - and we know the cardinality of A because it's countable, meaning that B would be countable in that case?
 
Not necessarily. It just means that for any infinite set B, there exists a proper subset A of B with the same cardinality as B. Thus if B is countably infinite, it has a countably infinite proper subset A, and so these form a counterexample to the statement in your first post. It doesn't mean that all sets containing A are countably infinite, as for example, the reals contain the integers, but are not countable.
 

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