iamqsqsqs Messages 9 Reaction score 0 Thread starter Feb 5, 2012 #1 If we know f(x)^2 and f(x)^3 are both holomorphic, can we say that f(x) itself is also holomorphic? And how to prove that?
If we know f(x)^2 and f(x)^3 are both holomorphic, can we say that f(x) itself is also holomorphic? And how to prove that?
mathwonk Science Advisor Homework Helper Messages 12,042 Reaction score 2,342 Feb 5, 2012 #2 have you tried dividing them?
iamqsqsqs Messages 9 Reaction score 0 Feb 5, 2012 #3 just figure out how to do it. just divide them and prove that the singularities must be isolated. otherwise f(z) will be constantly 0.
just figure out how to do it. just divide them and prove that the singularities must be isolated. otherwise f(z) will be constantly 0.
lavinia Science Advisor Messages 3,399 Reaction score 771 Feb 5, 2012 #4 iamqsqsqs said: If we know f(x)^2 and f(x)^3 are both holomorphic, can we say that f(x) itself is also holomorphic? And how to prove that? prove that the derivatives of a holomorphic function are holomorphic
iamqsqsqs said: If we know f(x)^2 and f(x)^3 are both holomorphic, can we say that f(x) itself is also holomorphic? And how to prove that? prove that the derivatives of a holomorphic function are holomorphic