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I was studying about infinite products that I got to the relation below in
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/InfiniteProduct.html
<br /> \infty != \sqrt{2 \pi}<br />
It really surprised me so I tried to find a proof but couldn't.
I tried to take the limit of n! but it was infinity.Also the limit of stirling's approximation was infinity.
So what?Is it correct?if yes,where can I find a proof?
Thanks
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/InfiniteProduct.html
<br /> \infty != \sqrt{2 \pi}<br />
It really surprised me so I tried to find a proof but couldn't.
I tried to take the limit of n! but it was infinity.Also the limit of stirling's approximation was infinity.
So what?Is it correct?if yes,where can I find a proof?
Thanks