MHB Is It an $\arctan$, $\arccot$, or Something Else in This Integral Solution?

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The discussion centers on determining whether the integral solution involves $\arctan$, $\arccot$, or another function. Through partial fraction decomposition, it is shown that the expression can be rewritten, revealing a negative sign in the denominator that rules out both $\arctan$ and $\arccot$. The focus then shifts to verifying option (b) by differentiating the natural logarithm of a fraction, which confirms that it matches the original expression. Consequently, option (b) is identified as the correct answer. The conversation highlights the importance of factorization techniques in solving integrals.
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partial fraction decomposition ... choice (b
 
Let's see if it is an $\arctan$ or an $\arccot$.
We can rewrite:
$$\frac{3}{x^2+x-2}=\frac{3}{(x+\frac 12)^2-\frac 14-2}=\frac{3}{(x+\frac 12)^2-\frac 94}$$
The minus sign in the denominator implies that it is neither $\arctan$ nor $\arccot$.

So the only possible answers are (b) and (d).
Let's check (b) by taking its derivative:
$$\frac d{dx}\left(\ln\left|\frac{x-1}{x+2}\right|+c\right) = \frac d{dx}(\ln|x-1|-\ln|x+2|)=\frac 1{x-1}-\frac 1{x+2}=\frac{(x+2)-(x-1)}{(x-1)(x+2)}=\frac{3}{x^2+x-2}$$
We have a match. Therefore (b) is the correct answer.
 
skeeter said:
partial fraction decomposition ... choice (b
Yes, thanks!
 
Klaas van Aarsen said:
Let's see if it is an $\arctan$ or an $\arccot$.
We can rewrite:
$$\frac{3}{x^2+x-2}=\frac{3}{(x+\frac 12)^2-\frac 14-2}=\frac{3}{(x+\frac 12)^2-\frac 94}$$
The minus sign in the denominator implies that it is neither $\arctan$ nor $\arccot$.

So the only possible answers are (b) and (d).
Let's check (b) by taking its derivative:
$$\frac d{dx}\left(\ln\left|\frac{x-1}{x+2}\right|+c\right) = \frac d{dx}(\ln|x-1|-\ln|x+2|)=\frac 1{x-1}-\frac 1{x+2}=\frac{(x+2)-(x-1)}{(x-1)(x+2)}=\frac{3}{x^2+x-2}$$
We have a match. Therefore (b) is the correct answer.

Thanks so much, especially for your time. You are perfectly right. Also, I liked how it started by doing 3=2+1 and then adding and negating x for factorization.
 
There are probably loads of proofs of this online, but I do not want to cheat. Here is my attempt: Convexity says that $$f(\lambda a + (1-\lambda)b) \leq \lambda f(a) + (1-\lambda) f(b)$$ $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (f(a) - f(b))$$ We know from the intermediate value theorem that there exists a ##c \in (b,a)## such that $$\frac{f(a) - f(b)}{a-b} = f'(c).$$ Hence $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (a - b) f'(c))$$ $$\frac{f(b + \lambda(a-b)) - f(b)}{\lambda(a-b)}...

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