Just doing the calculations informally in my head, it seems to me, that for two inertial observers, of a same quantum phenomenon, the probability distribution is modified just so that an event happens at (x,t) in S with probability P, then it happens in at (x',t') in S' with the same probability, where (x',t') is related to (x,t) by a Lorentz transformation.
But what I don't understand is why you posted the question in the math forum. It is not the task of math to say what is and what is not physically possible. A mathematician just has to say "Let P1 be the probability of the event according to S and let P' be the probability of the event according to S'" and it's done.