Is Sin(x) a 1:1 Function and What Defines a Function?

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SUMMARY

The discussion confirms that the sine function, denoted as sin(x), is indeed a function because it assigns exactly one y value for every x value. However, sin(x) is classified as a many-to-one function, as multiple x values can yield the same y value, such as sin(π/2) and sin(5π/2), both resulting in y=1. Furthermore, it clarifies that a function is considered injective (or one-to-one) if a horizontal line intersects the graph at most once, which sin(x) does not satisfy, thus confirming it is not a 1:1 function.

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Is the following correct.

1. f(x) is a function if for every x value there is exactly one y value. so sin x is a function.

2. does a 1-1 function mean that the line y = constant cut the graph in exactly one place? therefore sin (x) is not a 1:1 function but is still a function?

:redface:
 
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Chadlee88 said:
Is the following correct.

1. f(x) is a function if for every x value there is exactly one y value. so sin x is a function.

2. does a 1-1 function mean that the line y = constant cut the graph in exactly one place? therefore sin (x) is not a 1:1 function but is still a function?

:redface:
Yes that is correct.

[tex]\\sin x[/tex] is a function that is a many to one function. That is there are multiple x values that give the same value as y or f(x). For example if you sub in [tex]x={\pi}/{2}[/tex] and [tex]x={5\pi}/{2}[/tex] into [tex]y= \\sin x[/tex] you get y=1 in both cases.

Thus you have a many to one function. There is also a many to many graph which obviously isn't a function due to the vertical line test.
 
Last edited:
Number 2 is not correct. A function (from R to R) is injective if and only if the line y = constant cuts the graph in AT MOST one place.
 

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