Is the Law of Areas Still Applicable with a Changed Law of Gravitation?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the applicability of the law of areas in the context of a modified law of gravitation. Participants explore the relationship between gravitational laws and conservation principles, particularly angular momentum and potential energy, in various scenarios.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Exploratory

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants examine whether the law of areas remains valid under a changed law of gravitation, with some asserting its connection to angular momentum conservation. Questions arise regarding the definition of potential energy in different gravitational contexts, particularly with inverse cubic relationships.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exploration of the implications of changing gravitational laws on potential energy and conservation principles. Some participants suggest that potential energy can still be defined under these new conditions, while others question the broader implications for conservation of energy in various force scenarios.

Contextual Notes

Participants are considering hypothetical scenarios involving different forms of gravitational forces and their effects on potential energy, indicating a focus on theoretical implications rather than practical applications.

Jahnavi
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Homework Statement


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The Attempt at a Solution



I think if the law of gravitation changes then the law of areas should still hold .Law of areas is nothing but law of conservation of angular momentum . Since the changed law of gravitation is still central the law of areas should still hold true .

But the law of period will change as the dependency on the distance changes .

So option 1) is right .

Is that correct ?
 

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I only looked at it somewhat quickly, but I believe it is correct. The law of areas is derived from conservation of angular momentum. Writing a circular orbit with ##\frac{AMm}{r^3}=\frac{mv^2}{r} ## with ## v=\frac{2 \pi r}{T} ## would give you ## \frac{r^4}{T^2}=constant ##.## \\ ## An additional google of the topic seems to suggest that ## n=3 ## would normally result in an unstable orbit. Further study is needed... See https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/74okkx/what_would_orbital_mechanics_be_like_if_gravity/ ## \\ ## I think in any case (1) may still be correct.
 
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Thank you .

Is potential energy defined in the changed law just like the way it is defined usually (-GMm/r) ?

I mean , does potential energy exist if the force has an inverse cubic relation ?
 
Jahnavi said:
Thank you .

Is potential energy defined in the changed law just like the way it is defined usually (-GMm/r) ?

I mean , is potential energy defined if the force has an inverse cubic relation ?
It would be ## U(r)= -\int\limits_{r}^{+\infty} \frac{AMm}{r^3} \, dr=-\frac{AMm}{2 r^2} ##
 
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OK . So potential energy has nothing to do with inverse square law . Right ?
 
Jahnavi said:
OK . So potential energy has nothing to do with inverse square law . Right ?
It could still be a conservative force, where ## \vec{F}=-\nabla U ##. That does not require ## \vec{F} ## to be inverse square. Inverse cube works ok for that as well, i.e. the function ## U ## that is computed above will act as required for potential energy. The important thing here that it is a "conservative" potential in that the sum of the kinetic and potential energy is conserved.
 
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OK .

Suppose instead of force having inverse square/cube dependancy , potential energy is U = -K1r3 and the attractive central force is F = K2r2 , is the potential energy defined and does conservation of energy still hold true ?

Sorry , if my questions look irrelevant but we do get such type of questions as is evident from the OP . I am just trying to understand this better .
 
If ## 3 K_1=K_2 ##, I believe that would work. (And it's a good question).:smile: ## \\ ##Edit: But in that case, one correction: ## U=+K_1 r^3 ##. (Just like for a spring: ## U=+\frac{1}{2} k r^2 ##, with a "+" sign, when the attractive force is ## F=kr ##.).
 
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Does conservation of energy also hold for the case in post#7 ?

Does that mean any central force of the form Krn , where n is a non zero integer will be conservative if it satisfies F = -dU/dr ?
 
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Jahnavi said:
Does conservation of energy also hold for the case in post#7 ?

Does that mean any central force of the form Krn , where n is a non zero integer will be conservative if it satisfies F = -dU/dr ?
I believe that is the case. In general, if the force comes from the (minus) gradient of a potential function, it will be conservative.
 
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Thanks !
 
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