Is the Number of Elements in a Set Equal to Its Power Set?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the relationship between a set and its power set, specifically examining the statement that the union of the power sets of elements in a set is a subset of the power set of the union of those elements. The subject area is set theory.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the proof of the subset relationship and question the possibility of equality between the sets involved. There is a discussion on the implications of set cardinality and conditions under which equality might hold.

Discussion Status

Some participants express tentative agreement with the proof presented, while others seek clarification on the conditions for equality between the sets. The conversation is exploring different interpretations of the relationships between the sets and their power sets.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the equality might hold under specific conditions, particularly when the cardinality of the set is one. There is an acknowledgment of the need to consider the number of elements in the sets involved.

Mr Davis 97
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Homework Statement


Show that ##\bigcup \{\mathcal{P} X : X \in A \} \subseteq \mathcal{P} \bigcup A##

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


Suppose that ##c \in \bigcup \{\mathcal{P} X : X \in A \}##. Then by definition this means that ##\exists a \in A## such that ##c \in \mathcal{P} a##, or, equivalently, ##\exists a \in A## such that ##c \subseteq a##, which implies that ##c \subseteq \bigcup A## which means that ##c \in \mathcal{P} \bigcup A##.

Is this a correct proof? Also, why can't I just reverse the argument that that we have equality between sets and not just one being a subset of the other
 
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Mr Davis 97 said:

Homework Statement


Show that ##\bigcup \{\mathcal{P} X : X \in A \} \subseteq \mathcal{P} \bigcup A##

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


Suppose that ##c \in \bigcup \{\mathcal{P} X : X \in A \}##. Then by definition this means that ##\exists a \in A## such that ##c \in \mathcal{P} a##, or, equivalently, ##\exists a \in A## such that ##c \subseteq a##, which implies that ##c \subseteq \bigcup A## which means that ##c \in \mathcal{P} \bigcup A##.

Is this a correct proof? Also, why can't I just reverse the argument that that we have equality between sets and not just one being a subset of the other

It looks ok to me. As for why not the reverse, compare the power set of ##\{1,2\}## with the union of the power sets of ##\{1\}## and ##\{2\}##.
 
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Dick said:
It looks ok to me. As for why not the reverse, compare the power set of ##\{1,2\}## with the union of the power sets of ##\{1\}## and ##\{2\}##.
When would equality hold? It seems that it would hold iff ##|A| = 1##, but I am not sure how to prove this.
 
Mr Davis 97 said:
When would equality hold? It seems that it would hold iff ##|A| = 1##, but I am not sure how to prove this.

Count the elements in each set. If ##|A|=n## then the power set has ##2^n## elements.
 

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