Is the Series Alternating: (-1)^n / (arctan n)^n?

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SUMMARY

The series in question, (-1)^n / (arctan n)^n, is not an alternating series. The discussion confirms that while the series has the form of an alternating series due to the (-1)^n term, the behavior of the terms does not satisfy the conditions for alternation. Specifically, as n approaches infinity, arctan(n) approaches π/2, and thus (arctan n)^n does not decrease to zero, leading to the conclusion that the series does not alternate and will converge based on the root test.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of alternating series and their properties
  • Familiarity with the root test for convergence
  • Knowledge of the arctan function and its limits
  • Basic calculus concepts related to series and convergence
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of alternating series in detail
  • Learn about the root test and its application in series convergence
  • Explore the behavior of the arctan function as n approaches infinity
  • Investigate other convergence tests applicable to series
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Students studying calculus, particularly those focusing on series convergence, as well as educators looking for examples of alternating series and convergence tests.

remaan
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Homework Statement



Is this an alternating series : (-1)^n / ( arctan n ) ^ (n)

Homework Equations



I know that the alternating series should have (-1) to any power, but also the signs should be - , + , - , + ... or the opposit,

The Attempt at a Solution



I am ok with this I know that for testing Con. Or Div. of this we should use the root test

But this series. But the problem is " Is this seris alternating or not"

Becasue if not it will be treated normally with a root test and it will Con.

For me I think that it is not "Alternating "

What do you think ?
 
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Does 1/arctan(n)^n decrease to zero? That's what they want to you check.
 
mmm, do you mean the limit, if so no. It goes to inifity.
 
So, this is NOT an alternating sries, right ?
 
No. 1/arctan(n)^n doesn't go to infinity. Tell me why you think it does.
 
ohhh, Ya , I remembred it goes to Pie/ 2
Right ?
 
arctan(n) goes to pi/2. 1/arctan(n)^n doesn't.
 

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