Is the Set S={(x,y) in R^2 | xy≠1} Open in R^2?

  • Level: Graduate 
  • Thread starter Thread starter alligatorman
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Set
Join the discussion
Registration is free. Start your own thread to ask a follow-up.
11 replies · 4K views
alligatorman
Messages
113
Reaction score
0
I want to show that the set [tex]S=\{(x,y)\in \mathbb{R}^2 | xy\neq1\}[/tex] is open.

I'm having trouble forming the open ball contained in S centered at each point in S. The idea I have is:

Let [tex]q\in S[/tex]. Then select an open ball [tex]B_r(q), r\in\mathbb{R}[/tex]. Let [tex]P=\{(x,y)\in B_r(q)|xy=1\}[/tex]. If P is empty, we are done. If P is not empty, then create an open ball [tex]B_m(q),[/tex] where [tex]m=\min\{d(q-c)|c\in B_r(q)\}[/tex] (d is the distance function). Then we are done.

However, I feel like this isn't sufficient because it has not been shown whether [tex]\{d(q-c)|c\in B_r(q)\}[/tex] actually does have a minimum, or if it contains elements tending to 0. Am I just missing a property of the reals somewhere? I hope so. Any help would be appreciated.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Don't you think is easier to prove that [itex]S^c[/itex] is closed?
 
In metric spaces, a set is defined to be closed if it's complement is open.
 
Is there any way you can leverage your knowledge of the topology of R to help?
 
alligatorman said:
In metric spaces, a set is defined to be closed if it's complement is open.

True, so why don't you prove that the complement of S is closed?
 
AiRAVATA said:
True, so why don't you prove that the complement of S is closed?

Are you suggesting to prove by contradiction that it is closed? I'm not sure how to go about that because the only definition of closed I have is that it's complement is open.
 
If x is in the set {(x,y)| xy is not equal to 1} then obviously either xy< 1 or xy>1. Why not look at the two cases separately?
 
I could, but how would proving that the set is open be any easier when the cases are split up? I would still have to construct a ball such for each (x,y), no matter how close I make to the boundary.

I'm looking at some theorems, and I have that any subset S of a metric space is bounded if it can be contained in a ball. I can easily contain the set of the d(s) in a ball, which then means it's bounded from above and below. So then I can create the open ball with radius from d(q, lower bound)
 
Just checking: have you yet learned what continuous means?
 
I have not. (Not formally. I can't use it in the proof)
 
Ah. So you could not use the fact that multiplication is continuous, and the set of real numbers not equal to 1 is open. Oh well; that's the easy way to do this problem.
 
Suppose it's not open. Then there exists a pair (x,y) in S such that for all r>0, Br [itex]\cap[/itex] Sc is nonempty. In particular, we can do this for all r=1/n (n=1,2,3,...), and thus we obtain for each n a pair (an, bn) satisfying two properties:
(i) an * bn = 1, and
(ii) d((an, bn), (x,y)) < 1/n.

Can you show that this gives us a contradiction? (Hint: think sequences.)
 
Last edited: