In msg number 79 of the thread (closed from one year of inactivity)
https://www.physicsforums.com/threa...s-of-quantum-mechanics-comments.936506/page-4 you commented something I want to further inquire but can't reply there anymore so allow me to ask this here:
A better way of asking the question you might be trying to ask is, do people care about case 1 vs. case 2 because of the different ways the two cases suggest of looking for a more comprehensive theory of which our current QM would be a special case? The answer to that is yes; case 1 interpretations suggest different possibilities to pursue for a more comprehensive theory than case 2 interpretations do. Such a more comprehensive theory would indeed make different predictions from standard QM for some experiments. But the interpretations themselves are not the more comprehensive theories; they make the same predictions as standard QM, because they are standard QM, not some more comprehensive theory.
I'm aware one must draw the key distinction between interpretations of an existing theory, standard QM, and more comprehensive theories that include standard QM as a special case.
My interest in QM is towards these more comprehensive theories.
But then in the history of physics. The weak force, the strong force and EM were discovered even without upgrading QM. So even if there were another force of nature. It won't necessarily required alterations of QM. But Smolin and even Neumaier hinted quantum gravity may require more understanding of the foundation of QM.
Now let focus on these statements of yours :"case 1 interpretations suggest different possibilities to pursue for a more comprehensive theory than case 2 interpretations do. Such a more comprehensive theory would indeed make different predictions from standard QM for some experiments".
Do you have any examples in mind?
If not. Let me give an example (for sake of theoretical understanding and discussions). If someone can demonstrate a physical object like marble can be made to disappear and reappear elsewhere. Does it differentiate between case 1 and case 2? Because case 1 which just focus on the statistics of the output (the observable) is silent on what's in between and also silent on any mechanism making the entire object disappear. So if someone can demonstrate it. It can refute case 1, right? Or can one argue that is it part of the more complete description of case 1? This is very important question. There are many things Witten, Smolin, Hossenfelder and great giants of physics didn't have access to in this world. And this is a categorical statement that can be proven. But then this is just an example remember. If you can give examples about how say case 1 interpretations suggest different possibilities to pursue, please give it so I don't have to mention seemingly silly examples to get a grip of your thoughts of how case 1 or case 2 can give different possibilities of more comprehensive theories to pursue.