Is there an easier way to prove the divisibility of integers?

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The discussion presents a proof by cases to demonstrate the divisibility of integers, specifically focusing on sets of integers partitioned into groups such as (1,...,n) and (n+1,...,2n). The author concludes that for any selection of n consecutive integers, it is impossible for none to divide n exactly, as they must fit within these partitions. Furthermore, the proof asserts that for two integers to divide n, an overlap of the sets mn and (m+1)n is necessary, which cannot occur without including at least n+1 integers. This establishes a definitive conclusion regarding integer divisibility.

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Well, consider the sets of integers (1,...,n) (n+1,...,2n) and so on (and the negatives likewise). Now, these partition the integers. Take n consecutive integers anywhere in the integers and for none of them to divide n exactly you would have to fit them inside one of these sets. That's impossible of course. For two to divide n, you would have to overlap mn and (m+1)n for some integer m. That's also impossible without at least n+1 integers. QED.
 

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