Is this a valid proof for n >2^n for all n>3

  • Thread starter Battlemage!
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    Proof
In summary: But 2k! < (k+1)! for all k>4. Therefore2^{k+1} < (k+1)!and so by induction it follows that n! > 2n for all n > 3.
  • #1
Battlemage!
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Homework Statement


Show that n!>2n for all n>3.

Homework Equations


I will attempt to use induction.

The Attempt at a Solution


We want to show that n!>2n for all n>3.
Consider the case when n=4.
[tex] 4! = 24 > 2^4 =16.[/tex]

We want to show by way of induction that if the inequality is true for some k greater than 4, it is true for k+1.

Assume the inequality holds for k>4. Then,
[tex] 2^k < k! [/tex]
[tex] 2*2^k < 2k![/tex]
[tex]2^{k+1} < 2k![/tex]
for k>4.

But 2k! < (k+1)! for all k>4. Therefore

[tex]2^{k+1} < (k+1)![/tex]

and so by induction it follows that n! > 2n for all n > 3.
 
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  • #2
Proof is ok, but I'm going to be annoying:

Battlemage! said:
Assume the inequality holds for k>4. Then,
[tex] 2^k < k! [/tex]
[tex] 2*2^k < 2k![/tex]

Why?

[tex]2^{k+1} < 2k![/tex]
for k>4.

Why?

But 2k! < (k+1)! for all k>4.

Why?
 
  • #3
micromass said:
Proof is ok, but I'm going to be annoying:

Thank you. That always helps.
micromass said:
Why?
The reason I assumed it held for k>4: 4 is the very first integer greater than 3. I figured if I can establish by induction that it holds for 4, then 5, 6, 7,...k, k+1,... then it must hold for all numbers greater than 3. There is no upper bound on k. I did spin my wheels a bit at first since I'm used to the base case being k=1.

As for the second part, I multiplied by 2 because that would allow me to easily get the k+1 case because the base for the power is 2, and xax = xa+1. (also I don't believe the way everything relates to the number 2 here is coincidental. I think there might be a deeper relation between the base of the power and when it is larger than the factorial).

micromass said:
Why?
Because I multiplied both sides by a positive integer, so the inequality should remain. The multiplication was done so I can get the k+1 case for the exponent. I then kind of lucked into the next part. I knew I had to get to some point where the left was less than the target quantity, and this worked out well.

micromass said:
Why?
Because:
[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow ∞ } \frac{2n!}{(n+1)!} = 0 [/tex]
*EDIT I had n approaching zero for some reason

and as for k =3,2,1 and 0, I manually tested them. k>4 is overkill for this part. But I figured that in order remain consistent I'd stick with k >4, since it is necessary for comparing the exponential to the factorial.
 
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  • #4
[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow 0} \frac{2n!}{(n+1)!} = 0 [/tex]

This is wrong.
 
  • #5
Battlemage! said:

Homework Statement


Show that n!>2n for all n>3.

Homework Equations


I will attempt to use induction.

The Attempt at a Solution


We want to show that n!>2n for all n>3.
Consider the case when n=4.
[tex] 4! = 24 > 2^4 =16.[/tex]

We want to show by way of induction that if the inequality is true for some k greater than 4, it is true for k+1.

Assume the inequality holds for k>4. Then,
[tex] 2^k < k! [/tex]
[tex] 2*2^k < 2k![/tex]
[tex]2^{k+1} < 2k![/tex]
for k>4.

But 2k! < (k+1)! for all k>4. Therefore

[tex]2^{k+1} < (k+1)![/tex]

and so by induction it follows that n! > 2n for all n > 3.

There is, however, a small but significant error in your original proof. This is not related to insufficient justification, but is a genuine flaw.

Big hint: what happened to the case ##n = 5##? Where did you cover that?
 
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  • #6
Math_QED said:
This is wrong.
I wrote it wrong. It's supposed to be as n approaches infinity.
 
  • #7
Battlemage! said:
I wrote it wrong. It's supposed to be as n approaches infinity.

That means that for all ##\varepsilon>0##, there is an ##N## such that if ##n>N## we have ##2n! <\varepsilon (n+1)!##.

Your claim is that for all ##n>3## we have ##2n!<(n+1)!##. Those are very distinct statements.
 
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  • #8
micromass said:
That means that for all ##\varepsilon>0##, there is an ##N## such that if ##n>N## we have ##2n! <\varepsilon (n+1)!##.

Your claim is that for all ##n>3## we have ##2n!<(n+1)!##. Those are very distinct statements.
Oh I see what you're saying.

For that part when I answered your why question by posting the limit I just meant that because I knew that limit was zero it led me to the idea of trying to set up an inequality where

2k+1 < 2k! < (k+1)! for k>4.

I did not actually give a mathematical reason haha. I will think on it and try to articulate a better one.
 
  • #9
Battlemage! said:

Homework Statement


Show that n!>2n for all n>3.

Homework Equations


I will attempt to use induction.

The Attempt at a Solution


We want to show that n!>2n for all n>3.
Consider the case when n=4.
[tex] 4! = 24 > 2^4 =16.[/tex]

We want to show by way of induction that if the inequality is true for some k greater than 4, it is true for k+1.

Assume the inequality holds for k>4. Then,
[tex] 2^k < k! [/tex]
[tex] 2*2^k < 2k![/tex]
If you mean ##2 \times 2^k < (2k)! ## then that does not follow from the previous line. If you mean ##2 \times 2^k < 2 \times k!## then that does follow.
 
  • #10
PeroK said:
There is, however, a small but significant error in your original proof. This is not related to insufficient justification, but is a genuine flaw.

Big hint: what happened to the case ##n = 5##? Where did you cover that?
@Battlemage!

PeroK's question has been ignored. It raises an important point!
 
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  • #11
Ray Vickson said:
If you mean ##2 \times 2^k < (2k)! ## then that does not follow from the previous line. If you mean ##2 \times 2^k < 2 \times k!## then that does follow.
Yes that's what I meant. I figured a factorial was only grouped with other terms if there were parentheses, but then again it's not like a factorial is in PEMDAS so I would be ignorant of such rules.
SammyS said:
@Battlemage!

PeroK's question has been ignored. It raises an important point!

I post these questions at work and unfortunately ran out of time. I was thinking about it, though. Sadly I'm at a loss. More information below...

PeroK said:
There is, however, a small but significant error in your original proof. This is not related to insufficient justification, but is a genuine flaw.

Big hint: what happened to the case ##n = 5##? Where did you cover that?

Okay... let me see...

I have manually tested 5 and it works. 5! = 120 >25 = 32.
Likewise with my last step, 25 = 32 < 2(5!) = 240 < (5+1)! = 6! = 720.

As for the induction process, I've never done it where the base case wasn't one. Did I do it wrong with my base case of 4?Since I included k greater than 4, doesn't that already include 5. I don't quite understand what you're getting at. Any other hints? :/

EDIT- since we're here, I did find a different way to do it working the other way.

[tex](k +1)! = (k + 1)k! > (k + 1)2^k[/tex]
and since k > 4 then
[tex](k + 1)! > 2^k * 2 [/tex]
[tex](k + 1)! > 2^{k+1}[/tex]
 
  • #12
Battlemage! said:
As for the induction process, I've never done it where the base case wasn't one. Did I do it wrong with my base case of 4?

Since I included k greater than 4, doesn't that already include 5. I don't quite understand what you're getting at. Any other hints? :/

What you did was:

a) Showed it was true for ##n = 4##

b) Showed that if it was true for ##k > 4## it was true for ##k+1##

But, ##k > 4## starts at ##k =5##. So, you didn't cover the step ##P(k = 4) \ \Rightarrow \ \ P(k = 5)##.

The inductive stage of your proof should have been for ##k \ge 4##.

On the other issues, I think you have let the questions confuse you and over-elaborated your answers. Your proof depended only on (if ##a, b## are positive):

##a < b \ \Rightarrow \ 2a < 2b##

And

##k > 2 \ \Rightarrow \ 2a < ka##

You must see this, but recognising these simple facts and stating them simply and mathematically is something that generally does not seem to come naturally to many people.

On a final point, I would tend to write either ##2(k!)## or ##(2k)!## to avoid any ambiguity. Like you, I don't know what PEMDAS has to say about factorials.
 
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  • #13
PeroK said:
What you did was:

a) Showed it was true for ##n = 4##

b) Showed that if it was true for ##k > 4## it was true for ##k+1##

But, ##k > 4## starts at ##k =5##. So, you didn't cover the step ##P(k = 4) \ \Rightarrow \ \ P(k = 5)##.

The inductive stage of your proof should have been for ##k \ge 4##.
So essentially if I replace the > with a ≥ that would fix the issue?

PeroK said:
On the other issues, I think you have let the questions confuse you and over-elaborated your answers. Your proof depended only on (if ##a, b## are positive):

##a < b \ \Rightarrow \ 2a < 2b##

And

##k > 2 \ \Rightarrow \ 2a < ka##

You must see this, but recognising these simple facts and stating them simply and mathematically is something that generally does not seem to come naturally to many people.
So I could have omitted this part?
Battlemage! said:
But 2k! < (k+1)! for all k>4.

PeroK said:
On a final point, I would tend to write either ##2(k!)## or ##(2k)!## to avoid any ambiguity. Like you, I don't know what PEMDAS has to say about factorials.
Yeah I think I'll do that from now on.

I appreciate the help by the way.
 
  • #14
Battlemage! said:
So essentially if I replace the > with a ≥ that would fix the issue?

Yes, but you should see that yourself.

Battlemage! said:
So I could have omitted this part?

There was nothing you could have omitted. You just needed to justify what you were doing a little more.
 

1. What is the statement being proven?

The statement being proven is that for all values of n greater than 3, n is always greater than 2 raised to the power of n.

2. Is this proof valid for all possible values of n greater than 3?

Yes, the statement is being proven for all values of n greater than 3, so the proof must be valid for all possible values in that range.

3. How is this proof different from a mathematical induction?

This proof is not using mathematical induction, which is a method of proving statements for all natural numbers. Instead, it is using a specific method to prove a specific statement for a specific range of values.

4. What is the significance of the statement being proven?

The statement being proven has significance in the field of mathematics as it helps in understanding the relationship between exponents and natural numbers. It also has applications in various other areas of mathematics and science.

5. Can this proof be used to prove other similar statements?

Yes, the method used in this proof can be applied to other similar statements involving exponents and natural numbers. However, the specific statement being proven here may not necessarily be applicable to other contexts.

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