- #1

- 9

- 0

[tex]\sum^{1}_{\infty}\frac{(-1)^{n}}{n*ln(n)}[/tex]

I know it converges conditionally (I have the solution in front of me), but it is kind of vague in one area, it says that lim[tex]lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\frac{1}{n*ln(n)}[/tex] is zero... When you "plug in" infinity for n, you get: [tex]\frac{1}{\infty*\infty}[/tex]... I know [tex]\infty*\infty[/tex] is an indeterminate form, isn't this just a variation of it?