Is this induction proof valid?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a proof by induction concerning the inequality \((1+\frac{1}{2})^{n} \geq 1 + \frac{n}{2}\) for all real numbers. Participants are evaluating the validity of the original poster's proof and exploring the reasoning behind the steps taken in the induction process.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the structure of the induction proof, questioning the clarity and validity of the reasoning presented. There are suggestions to clarify the steps and to ensure that the assumptions made are properly justified. Some participants express concerns about the original proof's exposition and the handling of inequalities.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing feedback on the original proof and suggesting ways to improve clarity and rigor. There is a focus on ensuring that the mathematical reasoning aligns with the assumptions made during the proof process. Multiple interpretations of the proof's validity are being explored, but no consensus has been reached.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the original proof may lack clarity in its exposition and that certain assumptions about the terms involved in the inequality need to be scrutinized. The nature of the problem and the approach to induction are central to the discussion, with emphasis on the need for precise mathematical language.

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Homework Statement



My induction proof was really easy and simple, and people were having problems and doing substitutions and other complicated things. Normally I'd take pride in making a simpler proof but, there are really brilliant people in this class and I'm just starting to get the grasp of proofs, so it's not comforting.

Prove that for all real numbers:

[itex](1+\frac{1}{2})^{n} \geq 1 + \frac{n}{2}[/itex]

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



Let S be the set of natural numbers such that:

[itex](1+\frac{1}{2})^{n} \geq 1 + \frac{n}{2}[/itex]

Let n = 1

[itex](1+\frac{1}{2})^{1} = 1.5[/itex]

[itex]1 + \frac{1}{2} = 1.5[/itex]

Therefore, 1 E S

Assume this is true for n = k

[itex](1+\frac{1}{2})^{k} \geq 1 + \frac{k}{2}[/itex]

Check if this implies truth for n = k + 1
Left side:
[itex](1+\frac{1}{2})^{k+1}[/itex]

[itex](1+\frac{1}{2})^{k}(1+\frac{1}{2})[/itex]

Right side:

[itex]1 + \frac{k+1}{2}[/itex]

[itex]1 + \frac{k}{2} + \frac{1}{2}[/itex]


[itex](1+\frac{1}{2})^{k}(1+\frac{1}{2}) \geq 1 + \frac{k}{2} + \frac{1}{2}[/itex]

Is a true statement because our initial assumption asserts that

[itex](1+\frac{1}{2})^{k} \geq 1 + \frac{k}{2}[/itex]

Here, the greater term is multiplied by 1.5, and the lower term has .5 added to it. A number multiplied by 1.5 is always greater than the same number added to .5, except in the case of 1, in which case they are equal. Since the first term is greater than the second, and is operated on a way such that a greater result is yielded even if the two were equal,

[itex](1+\frac{1}{2})^{k}(1+\frac{1}{2}) \geq 1 + \frac{k}{2} + \frac{1}{2}[/itex]

Must be true.


Therefore S is inductive.

Therefore S = Natural Numbers.
 
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1MileCrash said:

Homework Statement



My induction proof was really easy and simple, and people were having problems and doing substitutions and other complicated things. Normally I'd take pride in making a simpler proof but, there are really brilliant people in this class and I'm just starting to get the grasp of proofs, so it's not comforting.

Prove that for all real numbers:

[itex](1+\frac{1}{2})^{n} \geq 1 + \frac{n}{2}[/itex]

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



Let S be the set of natural numbers such that:

[itex](1+\frac{1}{2})^{n} \geq 1 + \frac{n}{2}[/itex]

Let n = 1

[itex](1+\frac{1}{2})^{1} = 1.5[/itex]

[itex]1 + \frac{1}{2} = 1.5[/itex]

Therefore, 1 E S

Assume this is true for n = k

[itex](1+\frac{1}{2})^{k} \geq 1 + \frac{k}{2}[/itex]

Check if this implies truth for n = k + 1
Left side:
[itex](1+\frac{1}{2})^{k+1}[/itex]

[itex](1+\frac{1}{2})^{k}(1+\frac{1}{2})[/itex]

Right side:

[itex]1 + \frac{k+1}{2}[/itex]

[itex]1 + \frac{k}{2} + \frac{1}{2}[/itex]


[itex](1+\frac{1}{2})^{k}(1+\frac{1}{2}) \geq 1 + \frac{k}{2} + \frac{1}{2}[/itex]
I think you are hand-waving here. Start with the left side and show that it is >= 1 + (k + 1)/2.
1MileCrash said:
Is a true statement because our initial assumption asserts that

[itex](1+\frac{1}{2})^{k} \geq 1 + \frac{k}{2}[/itex]


Here, the greater term is multiplied by 1.5, and the lower term has .5 added to it. A number multiplied by 1.5 is always greater than the same number added to .5, except in the case of 1, in which case they are equal. Since the first term is greater than the second, and is operated on a way such that a greater result is yielded even if the two were equal,

[itex](1+\frac{1}{2})^{k}(1+\frac{1}{2}) \geq 1 + \frac{k}{2} + \frac{1}{2}[/itex]

Must be true.


Therefore S is inductive.

Therefore S = Natural Numbers.
 
1MileCrash said:

Homework Statement



My induction proof was really easy and simple, and people were having problems and doing substitutions and other complicated things. Normally I'd take pride in making a simpler proof but, there are really brilliant people in this class and I'm just starting to get the grasp of proofs, so it's not comforting.

Prove that for all real numbers:

[itex](1+\frac{1}{2})^{n} \geq 1 + \frac{n}{2}[/itex]

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



Let S be the set of natural numbers such that:

[itex](1+\frac{1}{2})^{n} \geq 1 + \frac{n}{2}[/itex]

Let n = 1

[itex](1+\frac{1}{2})^{1} = 1.5[/itex]

[itex]1 + \frac{1}{2} = 1.5[/itex]

Therefore, 1 E S

Assume this is true for n = k

[itex](1+\frac{1}{2})^{k} \geq 1 + \frac{k}{2}[/itex]

Check if this implies truth for n = k + 1
Left side:
[itex](1+\frac{1}{2})^{k+1}[/itex]

[itex](1+\frac{1}{2})^{k}(1+\frac{1}{2})[/itex]

Right side:

[itex]1 + \frac{k+1}{2}[/itex]

[itex]1 + \frac{k}{2} + \frac{1}{2}[/itex][itex](1+\frac{1}{2})^{k}(1+\frac{1}{2}) \geq 1 + \frac{k}{2} + \frac{1}{2}[/itex]

Is a true statement because our initial assumption asserts that

[itex](1+\frac{1}{2})^{k} \geq 1 + \frac{k}{2}[/itex]

Here, the greater term is multiplied by 1.5, and the lower term has .5 added to it. A number multiplied by 1.5 is always greater than the same number added to .5, except in the case of 1, in which case they are equal. Since the first term is greater than the second, and is operated on a way such that a greater result is yielded even if the two were equal,

[itex](1+\frac{1}{2})^{k}(1+\frac{1}{2}) \geq 1 + \frac{k}{2} + \frac{1}{2}[/itex]

Must be true.Therefore S is inductive.

Therefore S = Natural Numbers.

The flaw is this. "A number multiplied by 1.5 is always greater than the same number added to .5, except in the case of 1, in which case they are equal." You don't have the "same number" on both sides. Just write (1+1/2)^k*(1+1/2) as (1+1/2)^k+(1+1/2)^k/2 and try that again.
 
Why does it matter if they aren't the same number? The left is greater than the right by induction hypothesis.
 
1MileCrash said:
Why does it matter if they aren't the same number? The left is greater than the right by induction hypothesis.

The problem is in your exposition. The language is confusing. I think you should go back to taking pride in making a simpler proof. It's not that hard. You want to show (1+1/2)^k*(1+1/2)=(1+1/2)^k+(1+1/2)^k/2>=1+k/2+1/2.
 
What I am saying is basically, if I assume that x is greater than y, then x + 2 is greater than y + 1.

Of course, +1 and +2 are examples of operations.
 
1MileCrash said:
What I am saying is basically, if I assume that x is greater than y, then x + 2 is greater than y + 1.

Of course, +1 and +2 are examples of operations.

Sure, now why don't you try to clear up the original proof?
 
Ok, I'll take a shot. So you're telling me that I should translate the jist of it into math?
 
1MileCrash said:
Ok, I'll take a shot. So you're telling me that I should translate the jist of it into math?

Yes, show (1+1/2)^k*(1+1/2)=(1+1/2)^k+(1+1/2)^k/2>=1+k/2+1/2. I've been repeating that for a while. It's pretty direct.
 

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