I Is time really moving backwards?

  • Thread starter Thread starter Joe30174
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Time
Click For Summary
The discussion centers around the nature of time and spacetime, questioning whether time can be perceived as moving backwards. It emphasizes that time is not a spatial dimension and cannot be compared to spatial movement, as the Earth is simply an object in space. The conversation also touches on the complexities of spacetime geometry and how mass influences its curvature, while clarifying that spacetime itself does not "move." Participants highlight the importance of understanding relativity through proper study rather than popularized interpretations, noting that spacetime is a useful concept for making predictions in physics. Ultimately, the dialogue reflects a desire for clearer explanations of these concepts in educational contexts.
  • #91
valenumr said:
It is commentary on conservation of momentum and energy.

But conservation of momentum is something more general than "every action has an equal and opposite reaction". In my scenario momentum is conserved (we need to consider momentum of the EM field itself) but Newton's third law is violated.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #92
jbriggs444 said:
Your claim is wrong in general. An illustrative example would be helpful to work out our disagreement, yes.
Imagine a starship that has rotating rings to generate artificial gravity (sci-fi channel stuff) with a central axis. Now, if apply energy or force or work or torque, whatever, to the axis to cause it to rotate WRT to the rings, it is totally possible to know that it is the axis that is rotating and not the rings. You can chose observers who assume the rings rotating WRT the axis or vise versa, but all would end up agreeing the axis was rotating. OTOH, if I applied a torque to the whole ship to really rotate the rings, the axis would not be rotating relative to anyone on the ship. But they would all agree that the ship was rotating due to artificial gravity. Rotating with respect to what? The local geodesic, because all exterior points or constantly moving perpendicular to it. But do you see where the energy was applied?
 
  • #93
valenumr said:
... if apply energy or force or work or torque, whatever, ...
Just decide which.
 
  • #94
weirdoguy said:
But conservation of momentum is something more general than "every action has an equal and opposite reaction". In my scenario momentum is conserved (we need to consider momentum of the EM field itself) but Newton's third law is violated.
The concepts of conservation are fully embodied in Newtons laws. They are not at all discounted in the SM, SR, or GR.
 
  • #95
valenumr said:
They are not at all discounted in the SM, SR, or GR.

Conservation laws are not, but "every action has an equal and opposite reaction" is and that is what I am saying.
 
  • #96
valenumr said:
I suppose we could imagine a really twisted space-time where a body is rotated by shear forces. But does that not still imply an energy transfer?
No. Godel spacetime is a counterexample: objects moving along "comoving" worldlines in this spacetime are moving along geodesics (every point of the object is in free fall), but they have nonzero vorticity, which means they are being "rotated" (not "shear", the shear is zero--the rotation is rigid), but their energy does not change.

You really, really, really need to stop insisting that your incorrect intuitions are valid. This thread has gone back and forth for several pages now simply because you refuse to consider the possibility that GR does not work the way you think it does.

valenumr said:
Imagine a starship that has rotating rings to generate artificial gravity (sci-fi channel stuff) with a central axis. Now, if apply energy or force or work or torque, whatever, to the axis to cause it to rotate WRT to the rings, it is totally possible to know that it is the axis that is rotating and not the rings.
Your scenario makes no sense. First you say the rings are rotating, then you say you can make the axis "rotate WRT to the rings" as if that makes the rings "not rotating". But that's nonsense; if you didn't do anything to the rings, the rings are still rotating.

Also, how would you make an axis rotate? By definition it's the axis, it can't rotate.

A simpler scenario would be starting with the starship not rotating at all (zero vorticity), and applying a torque to make it rotate (nonzero vorticity). This would indeed add some rotational kinetic energy to the starship. But it would do it by applying forces to the different parts of the starship that were parallel to the direction in which those parts of the starship move. Everyone else in this thread already agrees that in this case, energy will be transferred. What they are saying, that you are refusing to recognize, is that if a force is applied perpendicular to the direction of motion, there is no energy transferred (momentum is transferred but energy is not).

For a simple example of a force that transfers zero energy, work out what happens to a charged particle in a magnetic field. The magnetic force is always perpendicular to the particle's velocity (this is obvious from the Lorentz force formula), so the particle's energy does not change.

valenumr said:
The concepts of conservation are fully embodied in Newtons laws. They are not at all discounted in the SM, SR, or GR.
While this is correct, it does not mean what you think it means. Everyone else posting in response to you understands that there are still conservation laws in GR. Continuing to repeat this statement does not make the other things you are saying valid. They aren't.
 
  • Like
Likes jbriggs444
  • #97
PeterDonis said:
No. Godel spacetime is a counterexample: objects moving along "comoving" worldlines in this spacetime are moving along geodesics (every point of the object is in free fall), but they have nonzero vorticity, which means they are being "rotated" (not "shear", the shear is zero--the rotation is rigid), but their energy does not change.

You really, really, really need to stop insisting that your incorrect intuitions are valid. This thread has gone back and forth for several pages now simply because you refuse to consider the possibility that GR does not work the way you think it does.Your scenario makes no sense. First you say the rings are rotating, then you say you can make the axis "rotate WRT to the rings" as if that makes the rings "not rotating". But that's nonsense; if you didn't do anything to the rings, the rings are still rotating.

Also, how would you make an axis rotate? By definition it's the axis, it can't rotate.

A simpler scenario would be starting with the starship not rotating at all (zero vorticity), and applying a torque to make it rotate (nonzero vorticity). This would indeed add some rotational kinetic energy to the starship. But it would do it by applying forces to the different parts of the starship that were parallel to the direction in which those parts of the starship move. Everyone else in this thread already agrees that in this case, energy will be transferred. What they are saying, that you are refusing to recognize, is that if a force is applied perpendicular to the direction of motion, there is no energy transferred (momentum is transferred but energy is not).

For a simple example of a force that transfers zero energy, work out what happens to a charged particle in a magnetic field. The magnetic force is always perpendicular to the particle's velocity (this is obvious from the Lorentz force formula), so the particle's energy does not change.While this is correct, it does not mean what you think it means. Everyone else posting in response to you understands that there are still conservation laws in GR. Continuing to repeat this statement does not make the other things you are saying valid. They aren't.
If I understand your second point correctly, regarding inducing perpendicular spin to the velocity vector, it would induce a torque (say downward)? But this did get off the rails. I'm lost on the point how a body can deviate from a geodesic path without some form of energy transfer.
 
  • #98
valenumr said:
If I understand your second point correctly, regarding inducing perpendicular spin to the velocity vector, it would induce a torque (say downward)? But this did get off the rails. I'm lost on the point how a body can deviate from a geodesic path without some form of energy transfer.
Keep things simple. Go back to the case of two billiard balls connected by a thread, rotating about one another. Let us put them in a flat space-time. Let us adopt the frame of reference where their combined center of mass is stationary.

Neither ball follows a geodesic path. Where is the energy transfer?

Please do not quibble about a time-varying quadrupole moment and gravitational radiation.
Please do not quibble about how this pair of billiard balls came to exist with this state of motion.
 
  • Like
Likes Dale
  • #99
PeterDonis said:
No. Godel spacetime is a counterexample: objects moving along "comoving" worldlines in this spacetime are moving along geodesics (every point of the object is in free fall), but they have nonzero vorticity, which means they are being "rotated" (not "shear", the shear is zero--the rotation is rigid), but their energy does not change.

You really, really, really need to stop insisting that your incorrect intuitions are valid. This thread has gone back and forth for several pages now simply because you refuse to consider the possibility that GR does not work the way you think it does.Your scenario makes no sense. First you say the rings are rotating, then you say you can make the axis "rotate WRT to the rings" as if that makes the rings "not rotating". But that's nonsense; if you didn't do anything to the rings, the rings are still rotating.

Also, how would you make an axis rotate? By definition it's the axis, it can't rotate.

A simpler scenario would be starting with the starship not rotating at all (zero vorticity), and applying a torque to make it rotate (nonzero vorticity). This would indeed add some rotational kinetic energy to the starship. But it would do it by applying forces to the different parts of the starship that were parallel to the direction in which those parts of the starship move. Everyone else in this thread already agrees that in this case, energy will be transferred. What they are saying, that you are refusing to recognize, is that if a force is applied perpendicular to the direction of motion, there is no energy transferred (momentum is transferred but energy is not).

For a simple example of a force that transfers zero energy, work out what happens to a charged particle in a magnetic field. The magnetic force is always perpendicular to the particle's velocity (this is obvious from the Lorentz force formula), so the particle's energy does not change.While this is correct, it does not mean what you think it means. Everyone else posting in response to you understands that there are still conservation laws in GR. Continuing to repeat this statement does not make the other things you are saying valid. They aren't.
And re: axis... I suppose I could have said someone just spun a free floating pencil for the first case. Observers would agree as to what actually had angular momentum, No?
 
  • #100
valenumr said:
I'm lost on the point how a body can deviate from a geodesic path without some form of energy transfer.
If a force is applied perpendicular to velocity then there is a deviation from a geodesic without energy transfer. As I showed above
 
  • Like
Likes jbriggs444
  • #101
Dale said:
If a force is applied perpendicular to velocity then there is a deviation from a geodesic without energy transfer. As I showed above
I'm still working through it.
 
  • #102
Dale said:
If a force is applied perpendicular to velocity then there is a deviation from a geodesic without energy transfer. As I showed above
I am still trying to reconcile how anything (macroscopic) can alter course without an energy input.
 
  • #103
valenumr said:
I am still trying to reconcile how anything (macroscopic) can alter course without an energy input.
I am guessing here that taking one's foot off the accelerator, putting the vehicle in neutral and turning the steering wheel counts as an "energy input" in your book?
 
  • #104
valenumr said:
I am still trying to reconcile how anything (macroscopic) can alter course without an energy input.
Did you not follow the explanation above? If so, perhaps start with pointing out the place where you first get confused. We can go from there.

valenumr said:
I'm still working through it.
I would recommend pausing until you can finish working through it.
 
  • #105
valenumr said:
I am still trying to reconcile how anything (macroscopic) can alter course without an energy input.
Maybe you are confusing energy with force?
 
  • #106
jbriggs444 said:
I am guessing here that taking one's foot off the accelerator, putting the vehicle in neutral and turning the steering wheel counts as an "energy input" in your book?
That's not a good analogy. Friction dissipates the vehicles energy.
 
  • Sad
Likes weirdoguy
  • #107
valenumr said:
That's not a good analogy. Friction dissipates the vehicles energy.
We've given you good analogies. But you've ignored them all.

Meanwhile, you've admitted that vehicles can deviate from a geodesic by dissipating energy into friction.
 
  • Like
Likes Dale
  • #108
valenumr said:
So you both claim that a fundamental principal of GR, an "observer" in "free fall" along a geodesic can deviate from that path without any external force applied? Ok.
I missed this earlier. No I do not claim that. The external force is indeed required.

What is not required is energy. Energy and momentum are different things. Power and force are similarly different things. You are conflating force and power.
 
  • #109
A.T. said:
Maybe you are confusing energy with force?
Perhaps I am using the wrong term from the outset, but I also don't see how energy, momentum, and force can be extricated. I'm not saying that energy is used up, just transferred.
 
  • #110
valenumr said:
Perhaps I am using the wrong term from the outset, but I also don't see how energy, momentum, and force can be extricated. I'm not saying that energy is used up, just transferred.
Going around in circles. I repeat: from what to what? From one billiard ball through a thread to another billiard ball?
 
  • #111
valenumr said:
Perhaps I am using the wrong term from the outset, but I also don't see how energy, momentum, and force can be extricated. I'm not saying that energy is used up, just transferred.
jbriggs444 said:
Going around in circles. I repeat: from what to what?
From one object to another.
 
  • #112
valenumr said:
From one object to another.
So we have these two billiard balls with a thread between them. Please identify the energy transfer.

They are rotating about each other. They deviate from a geodesic on a continuing basis. Their energy is constant on a continuing basis. Where is the continuing energy transfer?

No need to bring relativity into this. Let's stick with classical physics. Where is the continuing energy transfer?
 
  • #113
jbriggs444 said:
So we have these two billiard balls with a thread between them. Please identify the energy transfer.
Look, if you want to idealize a frictionless surface and perfect string, you are modeling a system where nothing loses energy. But if one ball gains energy, the other must lose some.
 
  • #114
valenumr said:
Look, if you want to idealize a frictionless surface and perfect string, you are modeling a system where nothing loses energy. But if one ball gains energy, the other must lose some.
Neither ball gains energy. Neither ball loses energy. Both orbit at constant speed. Neither follows a geodesic. Your claim is that because a geodesic is not followed, energy must be transferred. But when challenged on the point, you have no answer.

You keep dodging your own scenario. You have a moving object subject to an external force. What makes you think it must gain energy?
 
  • #115
valenumr said:
But is not gravitational acceleration in GR a fictitious force? An object traveling along a geodesic is a rest frame? Or is that totally a misunderstanding on my part?
Gravity is indeed a fictitious force in GR, the same way that centrifugal and coriolis are fictitious forces in classical mechanics (and GR). A fictitious force is one that causes proper acceleration, as opposed to coordinate acceleration; if you're not already clear about this essentiall distinction you'l want to look for some of our many threads about proper acceleration.

Thinking in terms of frames can be very confusing until you're clear on what a frame is and which quantities are frame-dependent and which are not. Energy, velocity, coordinate acceleration, momentum are all frame-dependent.

Every object is in a rest frame (because all objects are always in all frames). That frame in which an object is at rest may or may not be inertial. An inertial frame is only inertial within a region of spacetime small enough that gravitationa tidal effects cannot be detected; the global inertial frame of special relativity assume the complete absence of any gravitational effects.
 
  • #116
jbriggs444 said:
You keep dodging your own scenario. You have a moving object subject to an external force. What makes you think it must gain energy?
Well, this is the crux.. I'm saying an object deviating from it's geodesic must necessarily change energy. That is all.
 
  • #117
valenumr said:
Well, this is the crux.. I'm saying an object deviating from it's geodesic must necessarily change energy. That is all.
And that is wrong. Again.

It could be made correct with some qualifications:

An object at rest in an inertial frame cannot begin to move within that frame without having gained kinetic energy in that frame.
 
  • #118
jbriggs444 said:
And that is wrong. Again.
Well, I see your point. It doesn't change energy, but perhaps increases in kinetic energy and loses potential energy or vice versa.
 
  • #119
valenumr said:
Well, I see your point. It doesn't change energy, but perhaps increases in kinetic energy and loses potential energy or vice versa.
See subsequent edit in the post you quote. A viable claim would be:

"An object at rest in an inertial frame cannot begin to move within that frame without having gained kinetic energy in that frame".
 
  • #120
valenumr said:
Well, I see your point. It doesn't change energy, but perhaps increases in kinetic energy and loses potential energy or vice versa.
But how does it make that transition without energy applied? A rocket doesn't lift ff magically.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 27 ·
Replies
27
Views
6K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
95
Views
7K
  • · Replies 30 ·
2
Replies
30
Views
2K
  • · Replies 16 ·
Replies
16
Views
2K
  • · Replies 34 ·
2
Replies
34
Views
2K
  • · Replies 20 ·
Replies
20
Views
3K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 24 ·
Replies
24
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K