Is voltage drop different in parallel circuits?

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Voltage drop in parallel circuits is equal to the voltage of the power supply, not the same as in series circuits. Each resistor in a parallel circuit experiences the same voltage drop as the power supply. There is confusion regarding how to calculate voltage drop and current flow when components like ammeters are involved. Removing an ammeter from the circuit raises questions about whether current will continue to flow. Additional resources, such as educational websites, can provide further clarification on these concepts.
TonyG247
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I was under the impression that voltage drop was the same in parallel which would make it the power supply, but apparently not? Any insight would help. I know this isn't a hard a question, I'm just horrible at physics.
 
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TonyG247 said:
I was under the impression that voltage drop was the same in parallel which would make it the power supply, but apparently not?

Can you reword this? I think I know what you're saying, but I don't think you're saying it very well.

The same in parallel compared to what? To series? No, but I don't think this is what you meant. I think you meant it's the same as the power supply voltage. Is this correct?
 
Student100 said:
Can you reword this? I think I know what you're saying, but I don't think you're saying it very well.

The same in parallel compared to what? To series? No, but I don't think this is what you meant. I think you meant it's the same as the power supply voltage. Is this correct?

My apologies. Yes, the same as the power supply. And if that isn't the case, at least the same in each of the resistors. But the answer doesn't seem to be correct? I'm lost on how I should go about calculating the voltage drop with the provided information.
 
Say I pulled out what I can only assume is an ammeter, breaking the circuit there? Would current still flow?
 
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The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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