Kernel on linear transformation proof

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

This discussion focuses on proving that if a vector \( v \) belongs to the intersection of the kernels of multiple linear transformations \( T_1, T_2, \ldots, T_n \), then it also belongs to the kernel of their sum \( \sum_{i=1}^{n} T_i \). The proof is established by demonstrating that \( T_i(v) = 0 \) for each transformation, leading to \( \sum_{i=1}^{n} T_i(v) = 0 \). An example using \( \mathbb{R}^3 \) illustrates the concept, showing that the intersection of the kernels corresponds to specific geometric planes.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of vector spaces and linear transformations
  • Familiarity with kernel and image concepts in linear algebra
  • Basic knowledge of set theory and intersections
  • Ability to perform vector operations in \( \mathbb{R}^n \)
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of linear transformations in depth
  • Learn about the Rank-Nullity Theorem in linear algebra
  • Explore examples of kernel intersections in higher dimensions
  • Investigate applications of linear transformations in computer graphics
USEFUL FOR

Students and professionals in mathematics, particularly those studying linear algebra, as well as educators seeking to clarify concepts related to linear transformations and their properties.

Cristian1
Messages
3
Reaction score
0
hi guys :D

im having trouble with this proof, any hints?

let V be a vector space over a field F and let T1, T2: V--->V be linear transformations

prove that
 

Attachments

  • kernel.jpg
    kernel.jpg
    3.8 KB · Views: 106
Physics news on Phys.org
Hi Cristian,

If $$v\in \text{ker}(T_{1})\cap\text{ker}(T_{2}),$$

then what can we say about $$T_{1}(v)$$ and $$T_{2}(v)$$? With this question answered, we then look at

$$(T_{1}+T_{2})(v)=T_{1}(v)+T_{2}(v)=\ldots$$

I'm trying to give you a few hints so you can fill in the gaps on your own. Let me know if you're still confused/unclear on something.
 
thank you!
I see the point but don't see clearly the difference between the zero of the intersection and the zero of the sum
 
I will try to address what I think may be the confusion; if I have misunderstood you, just let me know.

My understanding of your question is that there is a perceived difference in the zero of the intersection and the zero of the sum. This is not the case: there is a single vector space, $$V,$$ and only one zero element of $$V.$$

What we are trying to show is ultimately set-theoretic in nature: we want to show that if an element $$v\in\bigcap_{i=1}^{n}\text{ker}(T_{i}),$$ then $$v\in \text{ker}\left(\sum_{i=1}^{n}T_{i} \right).$$ Let's break down what all this means:

To say that a vector belongs to the kernel of a linear transformation means that the linear transformation sends that vector to zero. So, by assuming $$v\in\bigcap_{i=1}^{n}\text{ker}(T_{i})$$ we are saying that $$v$$ makes all of the linear transformations zero; i.e.

$$T_{1}(v)=0,~ T_{2}(v)=0,\ldots, T_{n}(v)=0$$

In each case above the zero is the zero element of $$V,$$ they are not different zeros. Now, to show that $$v\in \text{ker}\left(\sum_{i=1}^{n}T_{i} \right),$$ we must show that when we plug $$v$$ into the function/linear transformation $$\sum_{i=1}^{n}T_{i}$$ we still get zero. For this we compute:

$$\left( \sum_{i=1}^{n}T_{i}\right)(v)=\sum_{i=1}^{n}T_{i}(v)=T_{1}(v)+T_{2}(v)+\ldots+T_{n}(v)=0+0+\ldots+0=0$$

Hence, $$v\in\text{ker}\left(\sum_{i=1}^{n}T_{i} \right).$$ Since $$v\in\bigcap_{i=1}^{n}\text{ker}(T_{i})$$ was arbitrary, the proof is finished.

Let's take an example to help us along. Let our vector space be

$$V=\mathbb{R}^{3}=\left\{\begin{bmatrix}x\\ y\\ z \end{bmatrix}: x, \, y, \, z\in\mathbb{R} \right\}$$

and our linear transformations $$T_{1}$$ & $$T_{2}$$ be given by

$$T_{1}\left(\begin{bmatrix}x\\y\\z \end{bmatrix} \right)=\begin{bmatrix}0\\y\\0 \end{bmatrix}$$

and

$$T_{2}\left(\begin{bmatrix}x\\y\\z \end{bmatrix} \right)=\begin{bmatrix}x\\0\\0 \end{bmatrix}$$

The zero element in this example is $$\begin{bmatrix}0\\0\\0\end{bmatrix}$$

Notice that $$T_{1}\left(\begin{bmatrix}x\\y\\z \end{bmatrix} \right)=\begin{bmatrix}0\\0\\0\end{bmatrix}$$

if and only if $$y=0.$$ Hence, $$\text{ker}(T_{1})=xz$$ plane. Similarly, $$\text{ker}(T_{2})=yz$$ plane. The intersection of these two kernels is the entire $$z$$ axis; i.e.

$$\bigcap_{i=1}^{2}\text{ker}(T_{i})=\left\{\begin{bmatrix}0\\0\\z \end{bmatrix}: z\in\mathbb{R} \right\}$$

(Drawing a picture of the two planes to see that their intersection is the $$z$$ axis may be helpful)

Now, if we wish to demonstrate the general proof you're working on in this example, we take an element $$\begin{bmatrix}0\\0\\z\end{bmatrix}\in \bigcap_{i=1}^{2}\text{ker}(T_{i})$$ and compute using the definitions of $$T_{1}$$ & $$T_{2}$$

$$\left(T_{1}+T_{2}\right)\left(\begin{bmatrix}0\\0\\z\end{bmatrix} \right)=T_{1}\left(\begin{bmatrix}0\\0\\z\end{bmatrix} \right)+T_{2}\left(\begin{bmatrix}0\\0\\z\end{bmatrix} \right)=\begin{bmatrix}0\\0\\0 \end{bmatrix} + \begin{bmatrix}0\\0\\0 \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix}0\\0\\0 \end{bmatrix}
$$

Hence, $$\begin{bmatrix}0\\0\\z\end{bmatrix}\in\text{ker}\left(\sum_{i=1}^{2}T_{i} \right)$$ as well. Thus, for this specific example,

$$\bigcap_{i=1}^{2}\text{ker}(T_{i})\subseteq \text{ker}\left(\sum_{i=1}^{2}T_{i} \right),$$

as it should be from your general exercise.

This is a long post, but I hope I have understood and addressed your concern. Let me know if anything is unclear/not quite right.
 
thank you very much! :)
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 23 ·
Replies
23
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
1K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K