Kinetic friction and lost mechanical energy

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around an object sliding down a 30-degree incline with a constant velocity. Participants are exploring the concepts of kinetic friction and the mechanical energy lost due to friction during the motion.

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the calculation of the coefficient of friction and the relationship between potential energy and kinetic energy. There is confusion regarding the definition of the ratio of mechanical energy lost and whether it refers to thermal energy. Some participants question the clarity of the problem statement and the implications of constant velocity on energy dissipation.

Discussion Status

There is ongoing exploration of the problem, with various interpretations of the energy loss and friction force. Some participants have provided insights into the relationship between forces and energy, while others seek clarification on the problem's wording and assumptions.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the problem lacks specific details about the velocity and the exact nature of the mechanical energy being referenced. There is also a mention of potential translation issues affecting the clarity of the problem statement.

hunbogi
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An Object slides with a consistent velocity down an incline that has a 30 degree angle.
I'm trying to find the kinetic friction and the ratio that the mechanical energy is lost on the way down.

I think I have already calculated µ with F(friction)= µmgcos(θ)=mgsin(θ) out comes Tan(θ) = µ
I think I did that correctly..
I'm struggling with the other part about the rate that the mechanical energy is lost. I would guess that it is not possible to get the answer in a number.
3.
I tried to us PE = mgh -friction = k2.
mgh - µmghcos(θ) = ½mv^2þ
not sure what my answer might look like in the end.
 
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I agree with you that u= tan(theta). As for the ratio- the ratio of mechanical energy lost to what? Thermal energy maybe?
 
It only says find the mechanical energy that is lost because of friction on the way down the incline.
I think U =mgs is the potential energy. energy on the end of the incline is K = ½mv^2
so I think the diffrent between the two is the friction force.
 
Ok so there is no ratio. I think your getting force and energy confused also. Be aware that force has units of Newtons= kg*m/s^2 and energy has units of Joules= N*m= kg*m^2/s^2. The mechanical energy lost is equal to the thermal energy generated. So if T is thermal energy then using conservation of energy set ΔKE+ΔPE+T= 0 and solve for T. btw this should probably not be posted in advanced physics
 
Okey thanks I will try that. New here so I didn't know where to post
 
Well, hello hunbogi, and welcome to PF :)

I suppose the consistent velocity is a constant velocity and the ratio is the rate, i.e. the mechanical energy loss per unit time.
There are two ways to find that rate:
One is friction force times displacement per unit time
Two is from potential energy loss per unit time
Answers should be the same
 
The rate of energy dissipation will depend on the velocity. Is the velocity given?
 
no it only gives the angle 30 degree and says the velocity is consistent
 
Consistent velocity does not make much sense. Is this a translation from another language?
If it's constant velocity, it can have any value, including zero. In which case there is no energy dissipation.
Something is missing and it may be due to translation.
 
  • #10
Sorry it is constant velocity. mixed up in translation
 
  • #11
Can you post the entire problem, as it is? Not just a summary.
 
  • #12
3.
An object slides with a constant velocity down an 30 degree incline
a) Find the friction force and find the ratio of the mechanical energy that is lost on the way down
 
  • #13
Oh, I think you want to say "the fraction of mechanical energy". This could make sense.
It may ask "What fraction of the mechanical energy is lost due to friction". Like, one half or 1/3 or 0.2.

Still does not seem completely alright. It is not clear what mechanical energy they are talking about.
The kinetic energy does not change. So the decrease in potential energy will be equal to the work of the friction force.
 

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