Klein-Gordon for a massless particle

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding a solution to the Klein-Gordon equation specifically for a massless particle. The original poster derives the equation from the total energy-momentum relation and presents a wave equation format, seeking assistance on how to solve for the wave function, ψ.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster considers using the Frobenius method but expresses uncertainty. Another participant suggests separation of variables, prompting questions about its applicability. The discussion includes attempts to relate the equation to one-dimensional wave equations and explores the implications of double derivatives in the context of separation of variables.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, exploring different methods such as separation of variables and discussing the nature of the wave equation. There is no explicit consensus, but some guidance has been offered regarding the separation of variables method and its relevance to the problem.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of a LaTeX formatting question, indicating a potential barrier to effective communication of mathematical expressions within the forum. Additionally, the original poster's understanding of the equation's structure and the methods available for solving it appears to be in development.

jabers
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So I'm trying to find a solution of the Klein-Gordon equation for a massless particle. I reached the Klein-Gordon from the total energy-momentum equation. Then for a massless particle i get to this equation:
$${ \partial^2 \psi \over \partial t^2 } = c^2 \nabla^2 \psi$$How do I solve for psi? I was thinking about trying the Frobenius method, but I'm not sure how to do that. Any help would be appreciated.

Also how do I make my typed latex display in the latex format on this forum?
 
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so for a one dimensional wave equation the equation is:

{ \partial^2 \psi \over \partial t^2 } = { c^2 \nabla^2 \psi} = c^2 {\partial^2 \psi \over \partial x^2}

Right?

I don't see how I could use separation of variables. If it were something like this:

{ \partial x \over \partial t } = { x }

Then I could say:

{\frac{1}{x} \partial x } = {\partial t}

And then integrate but I don't see what you mean. What do you mean?

The only thing i could see doing is this:

{\partial^2 \psi \partial^2 x} = c^2 {\partial^2 \psi \partial^2 t}

And integrating twice? But that doesn't really make sense to me.
I didnt think you could separate variables to solve a differential equation when there were double derivatives in the equation.
 
Cool, thank you.
 
this equation looks pretty much like the wave-equation, for a wave moving with a speed v=c.
So I guess you can think for solutions like cos or sin, or better exponential.

If for example you say:

Ψ(r,t)= ei(-kr+ωt) which is a spherical wave, you can see how this thing behaves in your equation.
 

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