L^1 convergence and uniform convergence

In summary, the conversation discusses an example of a measure space (X,µ) with infinite measure where a sequence of L^1 functions does not converge to a function f in L^1. This statement is not true if X is a Borel space, as a sequence of Borel measurable functions with a limit will converge to a Borel function. However, an example can be constructed using X=R with Lebesgue measure, where a sequence of rectangles converges uniformly to 0 but not in L^1. The L^1 norm is a way to measure the total variation of a function and it is defined as the integral of the absolute value of the function.
  • #1
quasar987
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Let (X,µ) be a measure space with µ(X) infinite. I'm trying to find an example of a pair (X,µ) and a sequence {f_n} of L^1(X,µ) functions converging uniformly to a function f such that we do not have f_n --> f in L^1(X,µ).
 
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  • #2
If your measure space is Borel then I don't think this statement is true. A sequence of Borel measurable functions that has a limit converges to a Borel function.
 
  • #3
RedX said:
If your measure space is Borel then I don't think this statement is true. A sequence of Borel measurable functions that has a limit converges to a Borel function.
I don't see how you can conclude the statement is false from this.

In fact it is possible to come up with an example satisfying the OP using X=R with Lebesgue measure. Take f_n to be a sequence of rectangles with decreasing height but increasing width, in such a way that f_n -> 0 uniformly but not in L^1. You can even rig it so that f_n doesn't converge in any L^p (1 <= p < inf).
 
  • #4
morphism said:
In fact it is possible to come up with an example satisfying the OP using X=R with Lebesgue measure. Take f_n to be a sequence of rectangles with decreasing height but increasing width, in such a way that f_n -> 0 uniformly but not in L^1. You can even rig it so that f_n doesn't converge in any L^p (1 <= p < inf).

Doesn't L^1 mean the space of integrable functions? So why isn't f=0 in this space?
 
  • #5
RedX said:
Doesn't L^1 mean the space of integrable functions? So why isn't f=0 in this space?

Yes, f(x) = 0 is in L^1. The issue is whether f_n converges to f in the L^1 norm.
 
  • #6
Ah! Thank you morphism.
 
  • #7
kilimanjaro said:
Yes, f(x) = 0 is in L^1. The issue is whether f_n converges to f in the L^1 norm.

What is the L^1 norm?
 
  • #8
The L^1 norm is defined on the space of all integrable functions as
[tex]\| f\|_{L^1(X,\mu)}=\int_X |f|d\mu
[/tex]
 

What is L^1 convergence?

L^1 convergence is a type of convergence in mathematical analysis that refers to the convergence of a sequence of functions in the L^1 norm. This norm is defined as the integral of the absolute value of a function over a given interval. In simpler terms, L^1 convergence means that the integral of the difference between a sequence of functions and a limit function approaches zero.

What is uniform convergence?

Uniform convergence is a type of convergence in mathematical analysis where a sequence of functions converges to a limit function at a uniform rate. This means that for any given value of x, the difference between the function and the limit function approaches zero as the sequence approaches infinity. In other words, the convergence is independent of the value of x.

How are L^1 convergence and uniform convergence related?

L^1 convergence and uniform convergence are both types of convergence that can occur in a sequence of functions. However, they are not the same. In fact, uniform convergence implies L^1 convergence, but the converse is not always true. This means that if a sequence of functions has a uniform convergence, it also has an L^1 convergence. However, a sequence of functions may have an L^1 convergence without having a uniform convergence.

What is the difference between pointwise convergence and uniform convergence?

Pointwise convergence and uniform convergence are two types of convergence that can occur in a sequence of functions. Pointwise convergence means that for each value of x, the sequence of functions converges to the limit function. On the other hand, uniform convergence means that the convergence occurs at a uniform rate, independent of the value of x. This means that for any given value of x, the difference between the function and the limit function approaches zero at the same rate as the sequence approaches infinity.

How is L^1 convergence different from L^2 convergence?

L^1 convergence and L^2 convergence are two different types of convergence in mathematical analysis. L^1 convergence refers to the convergence of a sequence of functions in the L^1 norm, which is defined as the integral of the absolute value of a function. On the other hand, L^2 convergence refers to the convergence of a sequence of functions in the L^2 norm, which is defined as the integral of the square of a function. In simpler terms, L^1 convergence measures the total difference between a sequence of functions and a limit function, while L^2 convergence measures the squared difference between them.

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