Lagrange's mean value theorem problem

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on solving a problem related to Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem (LMVT) and its application through Rolle's Theorem. Participants explore the definition of a function h(x) as a linear combination of f(x), f(0), and f(1) to satisfy the conditions of LMVT. The correct formulation identified is h(x) = xf(x), which leads to the conclusion that there exists a c in the interval (0, 1) such that 0 = cf'(c) + f(c). This approach effectively resolves the problem presented.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem
  • Familiarity with Rolle's Theorem
  • Basic knowledge of derivatives and their properties
  • Ability to manipulate functions and equations
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the proofs and applications of Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem
  • Learn about the implications of Rolle's Theorem in calculus
  • Explore examples of function manipulation to satisfy theorem conditions
  • Review advanced topics in differential calculus related to function behavior
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Students studying calculus, mathematics educators, and anyone looking to deepen their understanding of the Mean Value Theorem and its applications in real-world problems.

utkarsh009
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Homework Statement


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Homework Equations



Lagrange's mean value theorem

The Attempt at a Solution


Applying LMVT,
There exists c belonging to (0,1) which satisfies f'(c) = f(1)-f(0)/1 = -f(0)
But this gets me nowhere close to the options... :(
 
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edit
Sorry the post I made contained an error. I'm not quite sure how to fix it yet but basically what I think you need to do is find a function h(x) and define it in terms of some linear combination of f(x), f(0), f(1) so that it equals zero at the end points and then apply Rolle's Theorem.
 
Thanks mate! Solved it... But how did you think of that function h(x)??
 
o_O said:
edit
Sorry the post I made contained an error. I'm not quite sure how to fix it yet but basically what I think you need to do is find a function h(x) and define it in terms of some linear combination of f(x), f(0), f(1) so that it equals zero at the end points and then apply Rolle's Theorem.
But your h(x) had solved the problem. What was the error??
 
Hey sorry I edited my previous post. What I wrote doesn't work because the two c's might be different. The c that works for the equation you posted might be a different c from the one I used for h(x).

When trying to define an h(x) we want it to be 0 at the end points so we can apply Rolle's Theorem. It looks like Rolle's Theorem is needed because of the way the question is set up (i.e it looks like some derivative is equal to 0). And we want f(0) to disappear from the equation for the derivative because we don't know its value.
 
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Actually a relatively simple function works lol. Sorry for all this confusion:
<br /> h(x) = xf(x)
There exists a c in (0, 1) such that <br /> 0 = cf&#039;(c) + f(c)

by Rolle's Theorem.
 
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o_O said:
Actually a relatively simple function works lol. Sorry for all this confusion:
<br /> h(x) = xf(x)
There exists a c in (0, 1) such that <br /> 0 = cf&#039;(c) + f(c)

by Rolle's Theorem.
Yah... Was just thinking the same and was about to post it... :P
 

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