Lagrangian - surface of sphere

rolotomassi
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I have a free particle moving on the surface of a sphere of fixed radius R. Gravity is ignored and m/2 is left out since its constant.
The lagrangian is [itex]L = R^2 \dot{\theta^2} + R^2 sin^2{\theta} \dot{\phi^2}[/itex]

Using the Euler Lagrange equations I obtain
[itex]sin^2{\theta} \dot{\phi} = A = const \ (1) \\ \ddot{\theta} - sin{\theta}cos{\theta} \dot{\phi^2} = 0 \ (2)[/itex]
and by substituting 1 into 2
[itex]\ddot{\theta} = A^2 cos{\theta}/sin^3{\theta}[/itex]

By integrating w.r.t time and using the fact [itex]dt = d{\theta}/\dot{\theta}[/itex] and that theta and its time derivative are treated as independent coordinates i get
[itex]\dot{\theta} + A^2/ 2 \dot{\theta} sin^2{\theta} \ = c_1[/itex]
integrating w.r.t time again i get. [Using omega instead of theta dot now.]

[itex]\theta - A^2 cot{\theta}/\omega^2 \ = t c_1 + c_2[/itex]

I can't see anything wrong but I am supposed to get this into the form

[itex]\theta(t) = arccos ( \sqrt{1 - A^2/\omega^2} cos(\omega t + \theta_0)[/itex]

and I cant. If anyone can help I would appreciate it a lot. Thanks
 
on Phys.org
Your integration of the ##\ddot\theta## equation looks suspicious.
 
You're right it was. What I get now which I am pretty sure is correct is this horrible integral

[itex]\theta = \frac{1}{\omega} \int \sqrt[]{ c_1 - c_2/sin^2{\theta} } \ d \theta[/itex]

Which I also have no idea how to solve :S
 
rolotomassi said:
You're right it was. What I get now which I am pretty sure is correct is this horrible integral

[itex]\theta = \frac{1}{\omega} \int \sqrt[]{ c_1 - c_2/sin^2{\theta} } \ d \theta[/itex]

Which I also have no idea how to solve :S
You cannot have ##\theta## as the integration variable and the result!
 
wow I'm being stupid today.

If i separate the variables I get [itex]\int \frac{1}{ \sqrt[]{(c_1 - c_2/sin^2{\theta} )} }d \theta \ = \ \int dt[/itex]
 
Indeed, so I suggest a change of variables in the left integral. (Doing this change of variables from the beginning significantly simplifies the differential equation. You might try it instead.)
 
I start again and get [itex]\dot \theta = c_1 \int \frac{u}{(1-u^2)^{3/2}} \frac{dt}{du}du[/itex] But still abit stuck. If I sub in du/dt I keep getting a theta dot term. But I can't just assume u dot is independent of u and take it out the integral either. Brain is really hitting brick wall after brick wall with this
 
So start by solving the integral then.
 
Solving the integral IS the question. If i could solve the integral I wouldn't be asking for help on solving the integral.
 
  • #10
Well, so use the substitution in it. It is a standard integral.
 
  • #11
The integral is now [itex]\int d\theta (c_2 + \frac{c_1^2}{u^2 -1})^{-1/2}= \int dt[/itex] As I find it. But i get this simplifying to [itex]\int du \frac{1}{u^2 - a^2}[/itex] for the LHS where a^2 is a combination of the other constants. But this is a logarithm when integrating which doesn't make sense for the answer.
 
  • #12
[itex]\int 1/(c - 1/2sin^2x)^{1/2} dx[/itex] is what I've got now
 
  • #13
You are not doing the arithmetics properly then. Please show your work.
 
  • #14
That was the correct integral bar a constant, which has now been solved. Thanks anyway
 

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