- #1
bruno67
- 32
- 0
Maybe I am just being stupid, but I don't understand why in the Laplace inversion formula
(\mathcal{L}^{-1} F)(t) = \frac{1}{2\pi i} \int_{\sigma-i\infty}^{\sigma+i\infty} e^{st} F(s) ds
the contour of integration must be chosen so that \sigma is greater than the real part of all singularities of F(s). I would be very grateful if someone could explain this.
(\mathcal{L}^{-1} F)(t) = \frac{1}{2\pi i} \int_{\sigma-i\infty}^{\sigma+i\infty} e^{st} F(s) ds
the contour of integration must be chosen so that \sigma is greater than the real part of all singularities of F(s). I would be very grateful if someone could explain this.
