So last semester, I had a Circuit Analysis course where I learned about phasors. Basically, when dealing with AC circuits, I should convert everything to the frequency domain where [itex]X = j\omega L[/itex] and [itex]X = \frac{1}{j\omega C}[/itex]. I feel like I understood this part really well.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

However, in Circuits II, my prof was used Laplace transforms when dealing with DC circuits (at least I think?) involving capacitors and inductors and derived the same result for their reactance. I'm really confused at how he did this because aren't inductors just treated as short and capacitors as open circuits?

Also, are Laplace transforms and phasors related? They produced the same impedences, but they feel too different to be the same...

I hope I made my questions clear because I am currently very confused, and thanks in advance.

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Laplace Transforms and Phasors in Circuit Analysis

Loading...

Similar Threads - Laplace Transforms Phasors | Date |
---|---|

Engineering Math: Laplace Transform | Nov 20, 2016 |

Question on Laplace Transform of a constant voltage source | Aug 1, 2016 |

Why the Fourier transform is so important compared to other? | Apr 21, 2015 |

Laplace transform and region of convergence | Oct 30, 2014 |

Intuition about definition of laplace transform | Nov 28, 2012 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**