Laplace's equation inside a circular annulus

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on solving Laplace's equation within a circular annulus using Fourier series. The participants evaluate the Fourier series coefficients, specifically noting that all coefficients \( a_{o}, b_{o}, a_{n}, b_{n}, c_{n}, d_{n} \) equal zero, which suggests a trivial solution. However, they explore the integral \( \int_0^{2\pi} \sin(\theta) \cos(n\theta) d\theta \) and confirm that the product of periodic functions can yield non-zero results under certain conditions. The conclusion emphasizes the need for careful evaluation of integrals and the implications of periodicity in the context of Fourier analysis.

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temaire
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Homework Statement



1eoviw.png


Homework Equations



General solution:
1z23h4z.png


Fourier series:
2md14k1.png


where r_{1}=a, r_{2}=b, f_{1}(\theta)=sin(\theta), and f_{2}(\theta)=2sin(\theta)cos(\theta).

The Attempt at a Solution



By evaluating the Fourier series shown above, I determined that a_{o}=b_{o}=a_{n}=b_{n}=c_{n}=d_{n}=0.

Is this correct?
 
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Well, no. You could guess that for yourself because that would mean the answer is identically 0, which is not awfully likely for the diff eq is it?

I looked at ##\int_0^{2\pi}sin\theta cos{n \theta}d\theta ## . The best way to evaluate it is to express both the sin and cos in exponential form: ##sinx = \frac{e^x-e^{-x}}{2i}## and similarly for the cosnx. Multiply it all out and regroup your terms. You'll have a sin and a cosh. The former is periodic in ##\pi## the latter is not.

Do try again.
 
brmath said:
Well, no. You could guess that for yourself because that would mean the answer is identically 0, which is not awfully likely for the diff eq is it?

I looked at ##\int_0^{2\pi}sin\theta cos{n \theta}d\theta ## . The best way to evaluate it is to express both the sin and cos in exponential form: ##sinx = \frac{e^x-e^{-x}}{2i}## and similarly for the cosnx. Multiply it all out and regroup your terms. You'll have a sin and a cosh. The former is periodic in ##\pi## the latter is not.

Do try again.

I evaluated the integral you mentioned after expressing both the sin and cos in exponential form as follows:

263ygd0.png


Isn't this still periodic in \pi?
 
How about ##2 \sin \theta \cos n \theta = \sin ((n+1)\theta) - \sin ((n-1) \theta)##?
 
haruspex said:
How about ##2 \sin \theta \cos n \theta = \sin ((n+1)\theta) - \sin ((n-1) \theta)##?

Isn't that still always going to be zero at all n, where n is an integer and can't equal +-1, after integrating?
 
temaire said:
I evaluated the integral you mentioned after expressing both the sin and cos in exponential form as follows:

263ygd0.png


Isn't this still periodic in \pi?

****
Here's what I have:

##sinx \cdot cos(nx)##= ##\frac{1}{4i}[(e^{ix}-e^{-ix}) \cdot (e^{inx}+e^{-inx})] ## = ##\frac{1}{4i}[(e^{i(n+1)x} - e^{-i(n+1)x}) + (e^{(n+1)x} - e^{-(n+1)x})]##

Integrating up the last expression and evaluating at 0 and ##2\pi ## gives

## \frac{1}{4(n+1)i}(e^{2(n+1)\pi} + e^{-2(n+1)\pi}) ##

This is not zero.

Try to be very careful when you do your integration.. Also, note that the product of two periodic functions is periodic, but not necessarily in the period of either.
 
temaire said:
Isn't that still always going to be zero at all n, where n is an integer and can't equal +-1, after integrating?
Quite so, so maybe something else is wrong. But it's much easier than writing out all those exponentials.
 
brmath said:
****
Here's what I have:

##sinx \cdot cos(nx)##= ##\frac{1}{4i}[(e^{ix}-e^{-ix}) \cdot (e^{inx}+e^{-inx})] ## = ##\frac{1}{4i}[(e^{i(n+1)x} - e^{-i(n+1)x}) + (e^{(n+1)x} - e^{-(n+1)x})]##
Not right. You should get some n-1 terms.
 
haruspex said:
Not right. You should get some n-1 terms.

You are right, and I'm the one who should be careful about integrals. I do not know by what slip of the mind I lost the i's in the exponents. The other integral is 0 also.

So temaire is right, they are all 0, unless ##r_1 = r_2## (which isn't really an annulus,but whatever).
 

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