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In my original post I totally messed up my variables. Here I'll get straight to the point.

I guess what I am really asking is how is [tex]\frac{dy/dx}{y-900}[/tex] equal to [tex]\frac{d}{dx}[/tex]ln|y-900|

I know that the integral of [tex]\frac{1}{y-900}[/tex] is ln|y-900| but I don't understand how the notation works where one side has dy/dx and the other side just has d/dx

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# Leibniz notation giving me a headache

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