Let A be a subset of X, and suppose we have an injection from X to A

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a problem in set theory concerning the cardinalities of a set X and its subset A, given an injection from X to A. Participants are exploring the implications of this injection and how it relates to the cardinalities of the two sets.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • One participant attempts to prove the statement for finite sets using a contradiction approach, while another discusses the implications for countably infinite sets, suggesting a method of listing elements and considering surjectivity. There is also a request for clarification on the definition of "cardinality" and "same cardinality."

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with various approaches being explored for both finite and countably infinite sets. Some participants are questioning definitions and seeking clarification, indicating a productive exchange of ideas without reaching a consensus.

Contextual Notes

Participants note constraints such as the prohibition of using the Cantor-Bernstein Theorem and the need for clarity on definitions related to cardinality.

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Homework Statement



Let X be a set and let A be a subset of X. Suppose there is an injection $f: X \rightarrow A$. Show that the cardinalities of A and X are equal.

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The Attempt at a Solution




I tried proving this for hours but couldn't really get anywhere. So I was wondering if anybody could give me a hint so that I could start from there. By the way, I'm not supposed to use the Cantor-Bernstein Theorem.

Thanks in advance
 
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Suppose that X is finite. It's easy to prove by contradiction that they have the same cardinalities. A similar of proving the statement goes for the other cardinalities.
 
kostas230 said:
Suppose that X is finite. It's easy to prove by contradiction that they have the same cardinalities. A similar of proving the statement goes for the other cardinalities.
For finite sets, let's suppose that ##|X|=n## and ##|A|=m## where ##m > n##.

Since ##A \subseteq X##, if ##a \in A## then ##a \in X##. So ##a_1 \in A \implies a_1 \in X##, ##a_2 \in A \implies a_2 \in X##, ... , a_m \in A \implies a_m \in X. So we have a bijection h from X to the set {1, ... m}. But since ##|X|=n##, we also have a bijection k from X to {1, 2, ... ,n}. However, there exists no bijection between {1, 2, ... ,n} and {1, 2, ... , m} since m >n. A contradiction.

For countably infinite sets, we can use the injection ##f: X \rightarrow A##. Since X is countable, we can list the elements of ##X## as ##x_1, x_2, ... ##. We can also list the elements of A as ##a_1, a_2, ...##. Let us reorder the elements of A so that ##x_1## is sent to ##a_1##, ##x_2## is sent to ##a_2##, and so on. This function must be surjective. Suppose not. Then there exists ##a_k## for some k, such that ##f^{-1}(a_k) = \emptyset##. But this just means that we do not have ##x_k## in ##X##, which is a contradiction, since we assumed that X was countably infinite.

But I can't really see how I can extend this to uncountable sets...
 
Last edited:
What is the definition of "cardinality"? Or, perhaps just the definition of "same cardinality".
 

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