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I am reading Houshang H. Sohrab's book: Basic Real Analysis (Second Edition).
I need help with an aspect of Sohrab's statement of Theorem 6.5.1 (L'Hopital's Rule) on pages 262-263. Sohrab's statement of Theorem 6.5.1 reads as follows:
View attachment 3935
https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/3936
At the conclusion of the statement of the theorem, Sohrab writes:" ... ... Note that, for finite a, we obviously have $$\lim{x \to a} = \lim{x \to a+}$$ ... ... "I do not understand this remark.
Surely since $$f, g$$ are defined on $$(a, b)$$ the whole statement of the Theorem should be in terms of limits of the form $$\lim{x \to a+}$$ ... indeed for a function defined on $$(a,b)$$ it does not seem right to me to talk about limits of the form $$ \lim{x \to a}$$?
Can someone please clarify this issue for me?
Peter
I need help with an aspect of Sohrab's statement of Theorem 6.5.1 (L'Hopital's Rule) on pages 262-263. Sohrab's statement of Theorem 6.5.1 reads as follows:
View attachment 3935
https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/3936
At the conclusion of the statement of the theorem, Sohrab writes:" ... ... Note that, for finite a, we obviously have $$\lim{x \to a} = \lim{x \to a+}$$ ... ... "I do not understand this remark.
Surely since $$f, g$$ are defined on $$(a, b)$$ the whole statement of the Theorem should be in terms of limits of the form $$\lim{x \to a+}$$ ... indeed for a function defined on $$(a,b)$$ it does not seem right to me to talk about limits of the form $$ \lim{x \to a}$$?
Can someone please clarify this issue for me?
Peter