Limit as x tends towards +infinity for cos(1/x) to be 1

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The limit of cos(1/x) as x approaches +infinity is correctly calculated as 1, since cos(1/infinity) simplifies to cos(0), which equals 1. The book's answer of (0,3) and (3,+infinity) appears to be a misprint or related to a different problem. The continuity of the cosine function supports the conclusion that the limit is indeed 1. The user expresses concern over multiple incorrect answers in the same section of the book. This indicates a potential issue with the textbook rather than a misunderstanding of the limit concept.
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I have worked out the limit as x tends towards +infinity for cos(1/x) to be 1, as cos (1/infinity) would be cos(0) which is 1. However the answer in the book with the question says that the answer should be (0,3) and (3,+infinty)! Is this a misprint or have i gine drastically wrong?
 
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grizz45 said:
I have worked out the limit as x tends towards +infinity for cos(1/x) to be 1, as cos (1/infinity) would be cos(0) which is 1. However the answer in the book with the question says that the answer should be (0,3) and (3,+infinty)! Is this a misprint or have i gine drastically wrong?

Of course
\lim_{x \to \infty} \cos(1/x)
doesn't tend toward (0,3) and (3,infty) (how would that make any sense?). That is probably the answer to a different problem (have you checked the problem number and chapter number is correct?). Your idea is correct except for the fact that 1/infinity makes no sense, but since cos is continuous and defined in 0 you have:
\lim_{x \to \infty} 1/x = 0 \Rightarrow \lim_{x \to \infty} \cos(1/x) = \cos(0) = 1
so your answer is correct.
 


i have checked the problem number and everything...i think there is a massive misprint as i have done some other questions from the same section and the answers all seem to be wrong as there are of the same format as the answer in the first post!
 
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