MHB Limit involving exponential function

Click For Summary
The limit in question is $$\lim_{x \to \infty} \left(\frac{x}{1+x^2}\right)^x$$. The initial approach involved transforming it into an exponential form and applying logarithmic properties, leading to the expression $$\ln(L) = \lim_{x \to \infty} x \left[\ln(x) - \ln(1+x^2)\right]$$. However, it was noted that this method could lead to an undefined result since the limit approaches zero. A successful alternative method was suggested, rewriting the expression to reveal the form $$0^{\infty}$$, which is not indeterminate and confirms that the limit equals zero. This discussion highlights the importance of recognizing specific limit forms and employing appropriate techniques for evaluation.
Bueno
Messages
13
Reaction score
0
Hello everyone, how are you?

I'm having trouble to evalue the following limit:

$$\lim_{x->\infty} (\frac{x}{1+x^2})^x $$

I "transformed" it into $$e^{ln{(\frac{x}{1+x^2})^x}}$$ and tried to solve this limit:

$$\lim_{x->\infty} x ln{(\frac{x}{1+x^2})}$$

But I have no idea how to solve it correctly. Can you help me?

Thank you,

Bueno
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I haven't solved this either, but want to post my thoughts until someone else can help. I did the same thing you did to begin.

Let $$L= \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}\left( \frac{x}{1+x^2} \right)^x$$

$$\ln(L) = \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}x \ln\left( \frac{x}{1+x^2} \right) = \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} x \left[ \ln(x)-\ln(1+x^2) \right]= \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} x\ln(x)-x\ln(1+x^2)$$

This seems good so far and appropriate now to use L'Hopital's Rule, but I see one problem. The answer to this limit is $0$, so if $L=0$ then $\ln(L)$ isn't defined and I don't see how we can get the answer this way, so it seems like another method should be used. This limit uses a trick I haven't seen before or forgot, because it's tougher than many I have been browsing through just now.

Will post back if I see the solution and I hope that someone helps you soon! :)
 
We may rewrite the expression as:

$$\left(\frac{\frac{1}{x}}{1+\frac{1}{x^2}} \right)^x$$

and we see we have the form:

$$0^{\infty}$$

which is not indeterminate, and is in fact equal to zero.
 
Nicely done, Mark. (Clapping). I knew that the indeterminate form method wasn't going to work and thought of rewriting the expression somehow but just didn't see it.
 
I couldn't see anything like this, it worked perfectly. It's the first limit I see that needs this kind of trick.
Thank you!

I've been studying this kind of limits today and most of them were solved by the technique I mentioned in the first post, except for the one you just showed me how to solve and another.

Bueno
 
Last edited by a moderator:

Similar threads

  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
4K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K
Replies
11
Views
3K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K